Radiotherapy Question Answers

Question1:-The Chilika Lake lies in the state of
 A:-Gujarat
 B:-Jammu and Kashmir
 C:-Rajasthan
 D:-Orissa
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question2:-The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through
 A:-Orissa
 B:-Rajasthan
 C:-Chhattisgarh
 D:-Tripura
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question3:-The Pastern most longitude of India is
 A:-68°7’E
 B:-77°6’E
 C:-82°32’E
 D:-97°25’E
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question4:-Uttarakhand, Uttarpradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Skikkim have Common frontiers with
 A:-Nepal
 B:-China
 C:-Bhutan
 D:-Myanmar
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question5:-The height of the mountain peak Nanda devi is _____________ metre.
 A:-8598
 B:-7817
 C:-8172
 D:-7756
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question6:-Which five year plan introduced IRDP and NREP ?
 A:-`7^(th)`
 B:-`6^(th)`
 C:-`5^(th)`
 D:-`4^(th)`
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question7:-The book "Planned Economy for India" was written by
 A:-P. C. Mahalanobis
 B:-Dr. K. M. Raj
 C:-M. Visveswaraya
 D:-Dr. Manmohan Singh
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question8:-The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) was enacted in the year
 A:-1969
 B:-1970
 C:-1973
 D:-1971
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question9:-Who presented the first budget in Kerala Assembly ?
 A:-P. K. Kunju
 B:-C. Achutha Menon
 C:-R. Sankar
 D:-K. R. Gauri
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question10:-Anamudi, the highest Peak in Kerala is in __________ Taluk.
 A:-Munnar
 B:-Peerumed
 C:-Devikulam
 D:-Chittoor
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question11:-Who wrote the book "Jathinirnayam" ?
 A:-Chattambi Swamikal
 B:-Sree Narayana Guru
 C:-Ayya Vaikundar
 D:-Kumaran Asan
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question12:-Who is the propagator of the idea, "Anandajati" ?
 A:-Ayyankali
 B:-Vagbhatananda
 C:-Brahmananda Sivayogi
 D:-Pandit Karuppan
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question13:-Who translated the "Atmopadesa Sathakam" of Sree Narayana Guru to English language ?
 A:-Dr. Palpu
 B:-Kumaranasam
 C:-Thycand Ayya
 D:-Nataraja Guru
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question14:-c. Kesavan made the Kozhencherry speech in the year
 A:-1932
 B:-1933
 C:-1935
 D:-1936
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question15:-"Chithralekha" is written by
 A:-Pandit Karuppan
 B:-Kumara Asam
 C:-Thycaud Ayya
 D:-Vaghbatananda
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question16:-The cleanest city in India, by the Survey of 2018
 A:-Bhopal
 B:-Chandigarh
 C:-Lucknow
 D:-Indore
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question17:-Who won the Orange Cap for leading run scorer of the IPL Tournament 2018 ?
 A:-Kane Williamson
 B:-Virat Kohli
 C:-Rishabh Pant
 D:-A B devilliers
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question18:-Which bank was the first to introduce ATMs to the world ?
 A:-Hong Kong Bank
 B:-Standard Chartered Bank
 C:-Citi Bank
 D:-Bank of America
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question19:-The `105^(th)` Indian Science Congress was held in 2018 at
 A:-Bhuvaneswar
 B:-Bangaluru
 C:-Bhopal
 D:-Imphal
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question20:-The winner of J. C. Danil Award 2017
 A:-Adoor Gopalakrishnan
 B:-Sree Kumaran Thanpi
 C:-M. K. Arjunam
 D:-K. G. George
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question21:-A nucleus remains stable as Z(proton number) increases when
 A:-no. of neutrons > no. of protons
 B:-no. of protons > no. of neutrons
 C:-no. of protons = no. of neutrons
 D:-none of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question22:-In `90_(Sr-)` `90_(Y)` beta ray applicator, the parent and daughter nuclei are in
 A:-Transient equilibrium
 B:-Secular equilibrium
 C:-Relative equilibrium
 D:-Not in equilibrium
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question23:-Compton interaction depends up on
 A:-Photon energy and electron density of the medium
 B:-Z and the electron density of the medium
 C:-Photon energy and Z of the medium
 D:-Z and free electron energy level of the medium
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question24:-In build up region for high energy photon beams
 A:-Energy transferred increases
 B:-Energy absorbed increases
 C:-Energy absorbed decreases
 D:-Energy transferred is equal to energy absorbed
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question25:-The calculation parameters which we used for the SSD set up treatments are
 A:-PDD and the dose rate in air at Isocentre
 B:-TMR and the dose rate in air at Isocentre
 C:-PDD and the dose rate in water at `d_(max)`
 D:-TMR and dose rate in water at `d_(max)`
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question26:-The unit of integral dose is
 A:-Joule/Kg
 B:-Coulomb/Kg
 C:-Joule Kg
 D:-Joule
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question27:-Radiation Field size is defined as the
 A:-Lateral distance between the collimator opening
 B:-Lateral distance between the optical field edges
 C:-Lateral distance between the 90% Isodose line at reference depth
 D:-Lateral distance between 50% Isodose line at reference depth
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question28:-Radiation weighting factor is same for
 A:-Photons and electrons
 B:-Neutrons and photons
 C:-Thermal neutrons and protons
 D:-None of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question29:-Using TLD personal monitoring system we can detect
 A:-Only photons
 B:-Only electrons
 C:-Photons and electrons
 D:-Photons, electrons and neutrons
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question30:-The filters used with Mega Voltage x-rays is for
 A:-Removing unwanted soft X rays
 B:-Making the intensity uniform across the beam
 C:-Removing the horns across the beam
 D:-All of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question31:-"Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm with involvement of spleen
and extra lymphatic organ" in Ann Arbor staging classification for Hodgkins disease is
 A:-III
 B:-III S
 C:-III E
 D:-III SE
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question32:-The therapeutic ratio of a given regimen is the ratio of
 A:-Percentage tumor control with therapy/Percentage complication with therapy
 B:-Percentage complication with therapy/Percentage tumor control with therapy
 C:-Percentage normal tissue damage/Percentage tumor tissue damage
 D:-None of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question33:-Beckwith Wiedemann Syndrome is associated with Wilm' stumor in
 A:-13%
 B:-5%
 C:-9%
 D:-1%
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question34:-5 year survival rate of inflammatory breast cancer after multidisciplinary management
 A:-20%
 B:-25%
 C:-30%
 D:-40%
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question35:-All the following included in electromagnetic spectrum except
 A:-Visible light
 B:-Gamma-rays
 C:-Beta rays
 D:-X-rays
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question36:-Risk of relapse of stage I seminoma after high inguinal radical orchidectomy is
 A:-10%
 B:-20%
 C:-30%
 D:-40%
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question37:-What is the dose limit for whole body of a radiation worker ?
 A:-1 mSv/year
 B:-10 mSv/year
 C:-20 mSv/year
 D:-30 mSv/year
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question38:-Which of the following gene(s) is/are associated with hereditary breast cancer ?
 A:-BRCA1/BRCA2
 B:-CHECK2
 C:-PALB2
 D:-All of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question39:-Nobel prize for the discovery of cell cycle was received by all except
 A:-H. Hartwell
 B:-Timothy Hunt
 C:-Zetterberg
 D:-Paul M. Nurse
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question40:-Gamma ray energy related to cobalt 60 radiosotope
 A:-1.25 MeV
 B:-1.17 MeV
 C:-1.33 MeV
 D:-All of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question41:-Which of the following statements regarding lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) is wrong ?
 A:-LCIS cells are commonly ER negative
 B:-LCIS has been reported to present with a multi centric distribution in upto 90% of the mastectomy specimen
 C:-Loss of E cadherin is often observed
 D:-Represents <15% of all noninvasive breast cancer
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question42:-Type of asbestosfibers with highest risk of malignant pleural mesothelioma
 A:-Chrysotile
 B:-Amphibole
 C:-Cribriform
 D:-Cruciate
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question43:-Normal tissue tolerance dose of heart with conventional fractionation radiation treatment is
 A:-No more than 1/3 of heart volume to receive 20 Gy
 B:-No more then 1/3 of heart volume to receive 40 Gy
 C:-No more than 1/3 of heart volume to receive 60 Gy
 D:-No more than 1/3 of heart volume to receive 80 Gy
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question44:-Most common origin for cardiac metastasis is
 A:-Upper gastro intestinal tract
 B:-Breast
 C:-Lung
 D:-Melanoma
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question45:-The risk of breast cancer in a woman whose second degree relative has breast cancer is
 A:-1.5%
 B:-5%
 C:-10%
 D:-3%
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question46:-Bite block (intraoral device) is used in the radiation treatment of carcinoma tongue to
 A:-Replace air and give uniform dose distribution
 B:-Reduce radiation toxicity to buccal mucosa and hard palate
 C:-Immobilization of tongue
 D:-All of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question47:-Standard dose of definitive radiation therapy for esophageal cancer is
 A:-45 to 50 Gy at conventional fractionation schedule
 B:-50 to 50.4v Gy at conventional fractionation schedule
 C:-60 to 64.8 Gy at conventional fractionation schedule
 D:-55 to 60.4 Gy at conventional fractionation schedule
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question48:-Prophylactic cranial irradiation indicated in
 A:-CML
 B:-Esthesioneuroblastoma
 C:-Small cell lung carcinoma
 D:-All of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question49:-Cranial nerve least affected in carcinoma nasopharynx is
 A:-I
 B:-III
 C:-V
 D:-VII
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question50:-Mechanism of chemotherapy induced radiation sensitivity of taxanes
 A:-Cellular arrest in G2M phase of the cell cycle
 B:-Induction of apoptosis
 C:-Reoxygenation of tumor cells
 D:-All of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question51:-Which of the following normal tissue constraints is wrong ?
 A:-Optic nerve - Maximum < 55 Gy
 B:-Optic chiasm - Maximum < 55 Gy
 C:-Brain stem - Maximum < 45 Gy
 D:-Spinal cord - Maximum < 45 Gy
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question52:-Cervicallymphadenopathy is present in upto _____________ % of patients with carcinoma nasopharynx.
 A:-57
 B:-67
 C:-77
 D:-87
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question53:-Half-life of iodine -131 is
 A:-24 Hours
 B:-8 Days
 C:-72 Hours
 D:-5.26 Years
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question54:-Which of the following is correct ?
 A:-LDR range of 1-2 Gy/hour
 B:-MDR range of 2-12 Gy/minute
 C:-HDR over 12000 cGy/hour
 D:-None of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question55:-Median lethal dose of whole body radiation expressed as a single fraction is approximately
 A:-4 Gy
 B:-8 Gy
 C:-15 Gy
 D:-20 Gy
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question56:-Which of the following regarding "hot spot" is correct (ICRU report 62) ?
 A:-Volume outside PTV that receives dose>100% of specified PTV dose at least `2cm^(3)` in a section
 B:-High dose to RVR (Remaining Volume at Risk)
 C:-Volume outside PTV that receives dose>100% of specified PTV dose, 15mm diameter
 D:-Area outside target that receives dose>100% of specified target dose, at least `2cm^(3)` in a section
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question57:-PDD (Percentage Death Dose) of gamma rays of Cobalt 60 at 10 cm depth is (SSD-80 cm)
 A:-45%
 B:-55%
 C:-65%
 D:-75%
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question58:-FDA approved antiangiogenic drug Regorafenib improves overall survival in chemo refractory metastatic
colorectal cancer is
 A:-1.4 months
 B:-4.7 months
 C:-6.2 months
 D:-8.1 months
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question59:-Which of the following is not a Hallmark of cancer ?
 A:-Self-sufficiency in growth signals
 B:-Sensitivity to anti-growth signals
 C:-Resistance to Apoptosis
 D:-Limitless replicative potential
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question60:-Which is wrong regarding hyper fractonation ?
 A:-Smaller than standard doses/fraction
 B:-Treating once a day for 6 or 7 days/week
 C:-Usually gives two fractions/day for five days/week
 D:-Overall treatment time prolonged
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question61:-Van Nuys Prognostic Index for ductal carcinoma in (breast) considers following features except
 A:-Lesion size
 B:-Perivascular invasion
 C:-Margins
 D:-Histology
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question62:-Positive immunohistochemistry staining for calcitonin in medullary carcinoma thyroid has sensitivity range of
______________ in cytology specimen
 A:-95-100%
 B:-75-80%
 C:-65-70%
 D:-55-60%
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question63:-For detecting Minimal residual disease following complete clinical remission in leukemia, which test technique
helps in decreasing false positives
 A:-Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
 B:-Reverse transcriptase PCR
 C:-Real time PCR
 D:-Florescent In situ Hybridization
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question64:-Which chromosomal translocation in ALL have favorable prognosis ?
 A:-t(12;21) (p12;q22)
 B:-t(9;22) (q34;q11)
 C:-t(1;19) (q23;p13)
 D:-t(4;11) (q21:q23)
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question65:-The following gene expression profiles in Diffuse Large B cell Lymphoma shows poor prognosis except
 A:-Bcl-2 expression
 B:-Bcl-1 expression
 C:-HLA-DR expression
 D:-P53 gene mutation
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question66:-True regarding flow cytometry in cancer diagnosis include
 A:-Prompt result availability
 B:-Need for fresh specimen
 C:-Can analyze two or more markers simultaneously
 D:-All of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question67:-T4N2M1 (ipsilateral) carcinoma lung comes under which composite stage ?
 A:-Stage IIB
 B:-Stage IIIA
 C:-Stage IIIB
 D:-Stage IV
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question68:-As per NCCN guidelines 2018, FIGO stage IA of epithelial ovarian cancer patients in whom fertility needs to be
preserved is treated by
 A:-Bilateral salpingo-oopherectomty
 B:-Unilateral salpingo-oopherectomty
 C:-Total Abdominal Hystrectomy with bilateral salpingo-oopherectomty and comprehensive staging
 D:-Unilateral salpingo-oopherectomty with comprehensive staging
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question69:-PET scan is considered "essential" in following initial tumor workup as per NCCN guidelines except
 A:-Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma-Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia
 B:-Hodgkins disease
 C:-Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma-Follicular Lymphoma
 D:-Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma-Gastric MALT lymphoma
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question70:-FIGO staging workup for carcinoma cervix include
 A:-CT scan abdomen
 B:-MRI Scan abdomen
 C:-USG abdomen
 D:-None of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question71:-Indication/s of Radiotherapy in sigmoid or caecal primary carcinoma include all except
 A:-Close or positive resection margin
 B:-All T2-T3 diseases
 C:-T4 disease with pelvic adherence
 D:-Both A) and C)
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question72:-Regarding results of German Trial in treatment of cancer Rectum, pre operative chemo radiotherapy showed
following results compared to post operative chemo radiotherapy
 A:-Improved 5 year survival rate
 B:-Decreased chronic toxicity rate
 C:-Poor sphincter preservation rate
 D:-Increased acute toxicity rate
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question73:-WPRT (Whole Prostate Radiotherapy) is indicated in all except
 A:-Lymph node involvement as per radiological investigation
 B:-Risk of lymph node involvement >/=15%
 C:-Gleasons score of 7 and more than 50% biopsy positive
 D:-None of above
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question74:-Total Low Dose Rate brachytherapy dose commonly used in carcinoma cervix treatment after external beam
radiotherapy of 45Gy is __________Gy
 A:-30 Gy
 B:-35 Gy
 C:-40 Gy
 D:-45 Gy
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question75:-A 15 year old boy with swelling tibial shaft complaints of local pain and fever. Histopathology shows small
round cells. Most likely diagnoses is
 A:-Osteochondroma
 B:-Giant cell carcin oma
 C:-Osteosarcoma
 D:-Ewings sarcoma
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question76:-A patient is receiving Cytarabine, Daunorubicin and Etoposide as part of induction therapy for Leukemia.ECG
shows peaked T wave with ST depression. Child's heart rate is 70/minute (<20% from base line heart rate). Serum
potassium of 7.4 m Eq/L. Clinical should initiate measures to manage
 A:-Tumor Lyses Syndrome
 B:-Hyperkalemia
 C:-Hyper leukocytosis
 D:-Syndrome of Insufficient ADH secretion
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question77:-In Breast Reconstruction Surgery after mastectomy, which of the following is not true regarding TRAM flap.
 A:-Flap may be based on a pedicled Superior Epigastric artery
 B:-It is a type of myo cutaneous flap
 C:-The flap can be transferred as a free flap
 D:-It uses supra umbilical fat
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question78:-As per NSABP B-18 trial, _____ % of patients who had a planned mastectomy were able to undergo breast
conservation therapy following neo adjuvant chemotherapy.
 A:-5%
 B:-9%
 C:-13%
 D:-17%
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question79:-The prescribed dose in Carcinoma Nasopharynx radiation planning is ______ to PTV of Clinical Target Volume
(CTV) gross and ______ to PTV of CTV high risk subclinical disease.
 A:-70 Gy, 59.4 Gy
 B:-64 Gy, 59.4 Gy
 C:-59.4 Gy, 54 Gy
 D:-54 Gy, 59.4 Gy
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question80:-Radio Surgery for focally recurrent Glioblastoma Multiforme has resulted in median survival of
 A:-3 to 5 months
 B:-5 to 8 months
 C:-8 to 10 months
 D:-12 to 18 months
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question81:-People friendly health care delivery system is the concept of
 A:-Mission LIFE
 B:-Mission Aardram
 C:-Education mission
 D:-Haritha Keralam
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question82:-Historically the first chemotherapeutic drugs used in the clinical setting were
 A:-Anthracyclines
 B:-Antimetabolites
 C:-Alkylating agents
 D:-None
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question83:-Adverse effects of oral morphine includes all EXCEPT
 A:-Respiratory depression
 B:-Nausea and vomiting
 C:-Sedation
 D:-Constipation
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question84:-The vitamin used to reduce the severity of hand foot syndrome of 5-fluro uracil
 A:-B12
 B:-B2
 C:-C
 D:-B6
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question85:-NOT true about tamoxifen flare
 A:-Occurs in approximately 30% of cases with metastatic disease
 B:-It develops in the first few weeks of therapy
 C:-Full dose of tamoxifen should be continued
 D:-Occasionally associated with hypercalcemia
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question86:-A measure of central tendency
 A:-Range
 B:-Standard deviation
 C:-Mode
 D:-None
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question87:-The dominant means of energy production in cancer cells
 A:-Gluconeogenesis
 B:-Glycolysis
 C:-Lactic acidosis
 D:-None
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question88:-A radiotherapy emergency
 A:-Superior venacava obstruction
 B:-Severe bone pain
 C:-Spinal cord compression
 D:-Brain metastasis
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question89:-The time interval between end of treatment and PET imaging after concurrent chemoradiation should be at
least
 A:-6-8 weeks
 B:-10-12 weeks
 C:-2-3 weeks
 D:-24-36 weeks
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question90:-For all the following analytical studies, the individual is the unit of analysis EXCEPT
 A:-Ecological
 B:-Cross sectional
 C:-Cohort
 D:-Case control
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question91:-Prophylactic surgery can prevent cancer in
 A:-Ulcerative colitis
 B:-Multiple endocrine neoplasia
 C:-Both A) and B)
 D:-None
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question92:-NOT true about mesna
 A:-Its a synthetic sulfhydryl compound
 B:-May cause false positive results for ketones
 C:-The usual does is 80% of the daily mg ifosfamide dose
 D:-May not prevent hemorrhagic cystitis in all patients
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question93:-All are elements of communicating bad news-the SPIKE approach EXCEPT
 A:-Intimacy
 B:-Perception and preparation
 C:-Knowledge of the condition
 D:-Empathy and exploration
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question94:-All are adverse effects of cisplatin EXCEPT
 A:-Neuropathy
 B:-Ototoxicity
 C:-Nephrotoxicity
 D:-Hypercalcemia
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question95:-The APL group will get the benefit of karunya benevolent fund if their annual income is below
 A:-5 lakhs
 B:-3 lakhs
 C:-1 lakhs
 D:-4 lakhs
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question96:-When a patient completes his/her age 18 years after commencement of treatment, further assistance under
cancer suraksha scheme will be extended for a maximum period of
 A:-5 years
 B:-3 years
 C:-2 years
 D:-None
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question97:-About Nivolumab TRUE
 A:-Anticytotoxic T lymphocyte associated protein 4 (CTLA4) inhibitor
 B:-Programmed cell death 1 (PD-1) inhibitor
 C:-mTOR kinase inhibitor
 D:-None
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question98:-Alemtuzumab targets
 A:-CD 33 antigen
 B:-CD 20 antigen
 C:-CD 52 antigen
 D:-Epidermal growth factor
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question99:-NOT true of phase III trails
 A:-The primary endpoints should be demonstrably related to patient benefit
 B:-Eligibility criteria should be broad to enhance generalizability of results
 C:-Conditions of treatment should be suited to community patient care
 D:-A quality of life measure should be included to measure benefit to patients
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question100:-Patient reported outcomes are important endpoint in oncology research because
 A:-Cancer treatments often have a large impact on overall survival
 B:-Cancer treatment decisions are often straight forward
 C:-Cancer treatments that are curative need to be advanced
 D:-Cancer treatments often have significant toxicity
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Neurosurgeon Recruitment Exam Question Answers

Exam: Assistant Professor in Neurosurgery
Medium of Question: English
Department Medical Education
QUESTION PAPER WITH PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
Question1:--'Savarnajatha' from Nagarcovil to Trivandrum was led by
 A:-Mannathy Padmanabhan
 B:-K. Kelappan
 C:-K.P. Kesava Menon
 D:-Dr. M.E. Naidu
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question2:-Out of the following which is not a novel of Tagore?
 A:-Gora
 B:-Chaturanga
 C:-Ghare Baire
 D:-Purobi
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question3:-Who is the first Indian to join the Viceroy's Executive Council?
 A:-Vithal bhai Patel
 B:-Satyendra Prasad Sinha
 C:-C.R. Das
 D:-Sarojini Naidu
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question4:-The real name of sister Nivedita was
 A:-Margaret Elizabeth
 B:-Catherine Noble
 C:-Mary
 D:-Nivedita
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question5:-The longest river in India is
 A:-Yamuna
 B:-Ganga
 C:-Godavari
 D:-Krishna
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question6:-In the first ministry of independent India, Jagjeevan Ram had the portfolio of
 A:-Labour
 B:-Health
 C:-Industries
 D:-Railway
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question7:-The viceroy who introduced budget system in India is
 A:-Lord Mayo
 B:-Lord Ripon
 C:-Lord Canning
 D:-Lytton
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question8:-Who is popularly known as the 'Christian Viceroy'?
 A:-Irwin
 B:-Minto
 C:-Wavell
 D:-Linlithgo
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question9:-In Travancore which ruler was known as 'Kizhavan raja'?
 A:-Avittom Thirunal Balarama Varma
 B:-Ayiliam Thirunal Rama Varma
 C:-Swathi Thirunal Rama Varma
 D:-Karthika Thirunal Rama Varma
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question10:-'Aruvikkuzhi' waterfalls is in
 A:-Idukki
 B:-Kottayam
 C:-Palakkad
 D:-Pathanam Thitta
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question11:-Digging wells for the use of the people was an important work of
 A:-Vagbhatananda
 B:-Kumara Guru
 C:-Pandit Karuppan
 D:-Vaikunta Swamikal
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question12:-'Athamabodhodaya Samghom' was founded by
 A:-T.K. Madhavan
 B:-Subhananda Gurudevan
 C:-Velukkutty Arayan
 D:-Arattupuzha Velayudha Panikkar
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question13:Moulana Mohammedali was the president of Indian National Congress in its session held at
 A:-Lucknow
 B:-Viyayawada
 C:-Kakkinada
 D:-Nagpur
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question14:-The publication of 'Swadeshabhimani' was started from
 A:-Trivandrum
 B:-Vakkom
 C:-Attingal
 D:-Kollam
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question15:-From which constituency, E.M.S. Namboodirippad was elected in the Kerala Assembly Election, 1957?
 A:-Pattambi
 B:-Kannur
 C:-Neeleswaram
 D:-Thrithala
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question16:-The National award for best feature film of 2017 was bagged by
 A:-Mom
 B:-Village Rockstars
 C:-Nagar Kirtan
 D:-Bhayanakam
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question17:-The winner of 2017 Ranji Trophy Cricket Tournament is
 A:-Vidarbha
 B:-Karnataka
 C:-Mumbai
 D:-Sourashtra
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question18:-The minimum age to become President in India is
 A:-21
 B:-25
 C:-30
 D:-35
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question19:-Which is the first state that introduced Panchayathiraj system?
 A:-Rajasthan
 B:-Kerala
 C:-Andhra Pradesh
 D:-Haryana
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question20:-The Atal Pension Yojana was introduced in
 A:-April 2015
 B:-May 2015
 C:-June 2015
 D:-July 2015
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question21:-Thalamotomy is done is Parkinson's disease to relieve
 A:-Tremor
 B:-Dystonia
 C:-Dyskinesia
 D:-Depression
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question22:-Which of the following is not a component of the triad of idiopathic normal pressure hydrocephalus?
 A:-head ache
 B:-gait disturbance
 C:-dementia
 D:-urinary incontinence
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question23:-In which of the following clinical conditions an Endoscopic third ventriculostomy will have the maximum success
rate
 A:-post meningitic hydrocephalus
 B:-hydrocephalus following intraventricular hemorrhage
 C:-hydrocephalus associated with tectal gliomas
 D:-for aqueductal stenosis when it is done before the age of 6 months
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question24:-Which of the following statement is FALSE regarding Esthesioneuroblastoma?
 A:-it is a tumor of olfactory neuroepithelium
 B:-can present with epistaxis
 C:-the commonest site of metastasis is cervical lymphnodes
 D:-bony erosion of the skull base is rare
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question25:-The commonest site of intracranial arachnoid cyst is
 A:-sylvian fissure
 B:-interhemispheric fissure
 C:-cerebello pontine angle
 D:-suprasellar
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question26:-Scaphocephaly occurs due to the premature closure of
 A:-Coronal suture
 B:-Sagittal suture
 C:-Lamdoid suture
 D:-Metopic suture
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question27:-Which of the following type of spinal cord lipoma is caused by a secondary neurulation defect?
 A:-Dorsal lipoma
 B:-Transitional lipoma
 C:-Terminal lipoma
 D:-None of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question28:-Which of the following is NOT a feature of Dandy Walker Malformation?
 A:-Posterior fossa cyst communicating with fourth ventricle
 B:-Hypoplasia of cerebellar vermis
 C:-Hydrocephalus
 D:-Low lying torcula
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question29:-Which of the following statement is FALSE regarding Chiair 1 malformation?
 A:-refers to caudal displacement of cerebellar tonsils 5 mm or more below the foramen magnum
 B:-hydrocephalus is uncommon
 C:-syringomyelia is common
 D:-may be associated with an occipital encephalocele
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question30:-Which of the following tracts in the spinal cord has a somatotopic organization with the sacral fibres arranged
medially and cervical fibres latterally?
 A:-Lateral corticospinal tract
 B:-Spinothalamic tract
 C:-Posterior column
 D:-None of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question31:-Corticosteroids are effective in the treatment of
 A:-Cytotoxic edema
 B:-Vasogenic edema
 C:-Interstitial edema
 D:-Osmotic edema
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question32:-Which of the following statement about Oligodendroglioma in FALSE?
 A:-around 70% of tumours show histological calcification
 B:-most common location is the frontal lobe
 C:-tumours with codeletion of chromosome 1p 19q have poor response to radiotherapy and chemotherapy
 D:-they usually do not stain for GFAP
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question33:-Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding primary CNS lymphomas?
 A:-vast majority are B cell lymphomas
 B:-the detection of Epstein Barr virus in CSF is highly specific diagnostic marker for AIDS related primary CNS
lymphoma
 C:-steroids are better avoided before taking the biopsy
 D:-magnetic resonance spectroscopy shows low lipid levels
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question34:-Normal intracranial pressure in adults is
 A:-1-7 mm Hg
 B:-7-15 mm Hg
 C:-15-25 mm Hg
 D:-20-30 mm Hg
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question35:-Which of the following pineal region tumours show elevated levels of β HCG in CSF?
 A:-Germinoma
 B:-Yolk sac carcinoma
 C:-Immature teratoma
 D:-Embryonal carcinoma
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question36:-Most common primary malignant tumour in pediatric age group is
 A:-Astrocytoma
 B:-Ependymoma
 C:-Medulloblastoma
 D:-Choroid plexus carcinoma
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question37:-At what level does the spinal cord end in adults?
 A:-Lower border of D12
 B:-Lower border of L1
 C:-Lower border of L2
 D:-Lower border of L3
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question38:-Hook effect is
 A:-blockage of inhibitory effect of dopamine on prolactin secretion due to compression of pituitary stalk leading to
moderate elevation of prolactin levels
 B:-low serum values of prolactin obtained by radioimminoassay when serum prolactin levels are very high
 C:-very low levels of serum cortisol following pituitary apoplexy
 D:-high levels of ADH following pituitary surgery
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question39:-Which of the following drain into the cavernous sinus?
 A:-superior petrosal sinus
 B:-inferior petrosal sinus
 C:-superior ophthalmic vein
 D:-vein of Labbe
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question40:-A 60 years old man comes to the emergency department following a Road traffic accident. He complains of
paraethesia of both upper limbs and bilateral hand grip weakness. On examination there was grade 3 power of both upper
limbs with bilateral hand grip weakness. The motor power was normal in both lower limbs. The most likely diagnosis is
 A:-Anterior cord syndrome
 B:-Posterior cord syndrome
 C:-Central cord syndrome
 D:-Brown-Sequard syndrome
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question41:-Late subacute subdural hematoma is most likely to display which one of the characteristics of MRI?
 A:-T1 hyperintense T2 hypointense
 B:-T1 isointese T2 hyperintense
 C:-T1 hyperintense T2 isointense
 D:-T1 hyperintense T2 hyperintense
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question42:-Which of the following utilizes Cobalt 60 source of photon production?
 A:-LINAC based radiosurgery
 B:-Proton beam therapy
 C:-Gamma knife surgery
 D:-Carbon ion therapy
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question43:-Which of the following is horizontal gaze center?
 A:-Paramedian pontine reticular formation
 B:-Medial longitudinal fasciculus
 C:-Superior colliculus
 D:-Rostral interstitial nucleus of MLF
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question44:-Which of the following statements is LEAST accurate regarding the Neurofibromatosis Type 2?
 A:-Presence of Bilateral vestibular schwannoma
 B:-Unilateral vestibular schannoma and family history of NF2 can be considered as a diagnostic criteria
 C:-Juvenile posterior subcapsular cataracts are common in NF2 patients
 D:-Caused by a mutation or deletion of the neurofibromin gene on the long arm of chromosome 17
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question45:-Which of the following screw placement may be risky in presence of a normal anatomical variant ponticulus
ponticus?
 A:-C1 lateral mass screw placement
 B:-C2 pars screw placement
 C:-C2 pedicle screw placement
 D:-C1-C2 transarticular screw placement
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question46:-Tectorial membrane is a continuation of
 A:-Anterior longitudinal ligament
 B:-Posterior longitudinal ligament
 C:-Ligamentum flavum
 D:-Interspinous ligament
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question47:-Which of the following is the most common functioning pituitary adenoma?
 A:-Prolactinoma
 B:-Growth hormone adenoma
 C:-Corticotroph adenoma
 D:-TSH adenoma
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question48:-The mechanism of injury in Jafferson's fracture is
 A:-Hyperflexion
 B:-Hyperextension
 C:-Flexion distraction
 D:-Axial loading
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question49:-According to the American Spinal Injury association Impairment Scale, a spine injury patient with preserved
motor function below the neurological level and majority of the key muscles below the neurological level having less than
grade 3 power is classified as
 A:-ASIA A
 B:-ASIA B
 C:-ASIA C
 D:-ASIA D
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question50:-Which of the following is the commonest blood vessel thought to cause compression of the trigeminal root to
produce trigeminal neuralgia?
 A:-Superior cerebellar artery
 B:-Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
 C:-Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
 D:-Basilar artery
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question51:-Which of the following movement disorder is caused by the damage to the subthalamic nucleus?
 A:-Myoclonus
 B:-Dystonic tremor
 C:-Athetosis
 D:-Hemiballism
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question52:-A patient with subarachnoid hemorrhage has a GCS of 13 and has no motor deficits. What is his WFNS grade?
 A:-I
 B:-II
 C:-III
 D:-IV
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question53:-Which of the following is not a component of Cushing's triad?
 A:-Hypertension
 B:-Bradycardia
 C:-Pupillary asymmetry
 D:-Irregular respiration
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question54:-Vasospasm following aneurysm rupture is maximum during
 A:-Day 1 to day 5
 B:-Day 4 to day 14
 C:-Day 12 to day 21
 D:-Day 21 to day 30
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question55:-Which one of the following nerves is outside the annulus of Zinn?
 A:-Abducens
 B:-Trochlear
 C:-Nasociliary
 D:-Oculomotor
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question56:-Which projection of the Anterior communicating artery aneurysm has the highest change of rupture during the
retraction of frontal lobe?
 A:-Superior
 B:-Inferior
 C:-Anterior
 D:-Posterior
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question57:-Which of the following surgical approaches is NOT suitable for an upper clival lesion?
 A:-Frontotemporal approach with orbitozygomatic osteotomy
 B:-Subtemporal approach with zygomatic osteotomy and anterior petrosectomy
 C:-Extreme lateral transcondylar approach
 D:-Endoscopic trans sphenoidal approach
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question58:-All are features of Parinaud syndrome except
 A:-Downward gaze paralysis
 B:-Defective convergence
 C:-Light near dissociation
 D:-Lid retraction
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question59:-Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding Glomus Jugular Tumors?
 A:-They arise from paraganglia in the adventitia of the jugular vein
 B:-Men are affected more frequently than females
 C:-They can present with conductive hearing loss
 D:-They are highly vascular tumours
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question60:-A patient presents with low back pain radiating to right leg with paraesthesia along the lateral aspect of leg. On
examination he had a weakness of extension of the right big toe and all deep tendon reflexes were normal. The most likely
disc prolapse expected in the MRI is
 A:-L2-L3
 B:-L3-L4
 C:-L4-L5
 D:-L5-S1
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question61:-Which of the following tracts carries pain and temperature sensation?
 A:-Anterior spinothalamic tract
 B:-Lateral spinothalamic tract
 C:-Posterior column
 D:-Lateral corticospinal tract
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question62:-A 10 year old boy presents with head ache and visual disturbances. MRI brain shows a suprasellar cystic lesion
with evidence of calcification. The most probable diagnosis among the following is
 A:-Pituitary adenoma
 B:-Rathke's cleft cyst
 C:-Craniopharyngioma
 D:-Central neurocytoma
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question63:-All are diagnostic features of Neurofibromatosis type 1 except
 A:-Café-au-lait spots
 B:-Iris Lisch nodules
 C:-Optic glioma
 D:-Adenoma sebaceum
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question64:-The Maxillary division of trigeminal nerve exits the cranium through
 A:-Foramen spinosum
 B:-Foramen lacerum
 C:-Foramen rotundum
 D:-Foramen ovale
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question65:-All are features of neurogenic claudication except
 A:-exertional pain over thigh and buttocks
 B:-symptoms are more pronounced while walking downstairs than walking upstairs
 C:-sitting and leaning forward may relieve the symptoms
 D:-bicycling can aggravate the symptoms
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question66:-The internal cerebral vein drains into
 A:-Deep middle cerebral vein
 B:-Basal vein of Rosenthal
 C:-Vein of Galen
 D:-Straight sinus
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question67:-Commonest presenting symptom of vestibular schwannoma is
 A:-unilateral hearing loss
 B:-tinnitus
 C:-disequilibrium
 D:-facial numbness
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question68:-The clinical grade (House Brackmann) of a patient with total facial paralysis with no perceptible movement is
 A:-Grade 0
 B:-Grade I
 C:-Grade V
 D:-Grade VI
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question69:-Which of the following approach is NOT suitable for a vestibular schwannoma when you are aiming for hearing
preservation?
 A:-suboccipital retrosigmoid approach
 B:-translabyrinthine approach
 C:-middle fossa approach
 D:-none of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question70:-Simpson grading is used to assess the completeness of surgical removal of
 A:-Gliomas
 B:-Meningiomas
 C:-Pituitary adenomas
 D:-Vestibular schwannomas
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question71:-Which of the following intracranial tumours can occur as an association of von Hippel-Lindau Syndrome?
 A:-Meningioma
 B:-Medulloblastoma
 C:-Hemangioblastoma
 D:-Ependymoma
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question72:-Which of the following histological type of meningioma is considered as a malignant meningioma?
 A:-Meningothelial meningioma
 B:-Fibroblastic meningioma
 C:-Papillary meningioma
 D:-Angiomatous meningioma
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question73:-The classical visual field defect in pituitary adenoma is
 A:-Homonymous hemianopia
 B:-Bitemporal hemianopia
 C:-Binasal hemianopia
 D:-Junctional scotoma
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question74:-The therapeutic ranges of phenytoin in adults is
 A:-10-20 μg/ml
 B:-20-30 μg/ml
 C:-30-40 μg/ml
 D:-40-50 μg/ml
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question75:-All of the following are true regarding pseudotumour cerebri except
 A:-Can cause blindness
 B:-Intra cranial pressure will be elevated
 C:-Majority of cases show moderate to severe dilatation of ventricles
 D:-CSF shunt is a treatment option
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question76:-Anterior petrosectomy is done in
 A:-Kawase triangle
 B:-Glasscock's triangle
 C:-Parkinson's triangle
 D:-Mullan's triangle
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question77:-Rapid correction of hyponatremia can lead to
 A:-Cerebral edema
 B:-Metabolic encephalopathy
 C:-Cerebral salt wasting
 D:-Central pontine myelinolysis
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question78:-According to Mayerding classification of spondylolisthesis, 26-50% of slippage is classified as
 A:-Grade I
 B:-Grade II
 C:-Grade III
 D:-Grade IV
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question79:-The Hounsfield unit for fat is
 A:--90 to -120
 B:-zero
 C:-70 to 140
 D:-more than 300
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question80:-A head injury patient is confused, opens eyes to painful stimuli and localizes pain. His GCS score is
 A:-13
 B:-11
 C:-9
 D:-7
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question81:-Which of the following is not a component of Gerstmann syndrome?
 A:-Alexia
 B:-Agraphia
 C:-Acalculia
 D:-Right-Light disorientation
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question82:-A patient admitted with severe head injury has a blood pressure reading of 150/90 mmHg. His ICP was 30
mmHg. What is the Cerebral Perfusion Pressure?
 A:-60 mmHg
 B:-70 mmHg
 C:-80 mmHg
 D:-90 mmHg
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question83:-Commonest false localizing sign in raised intracranial pressure is
 A:-Oculomotor nerve palsy
 B:-Abducent nerve palsy
 C:-Facial nerve palsy
 D:-Papilloedema
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question84:-Foster Kennedy Syndrome is commonly seen in
 A:-Third ventricular tumours
 B:-Fourth ventricular tumours
 C:-Pineal region tumours
 D:-Olfactory groove meningioma
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question85:-A 65 year old hypertensive lady presents with acute onset of severe head ache and neck pain. CT scan of brain
revealed subarachnoid bleed in the right sylvian fissure and a right temporal lobe hematoma. The most probable diagnosis
is
 A:-Hypertensive bleed
 B:-Aneurysm bleed
 C:-AVM bleed
 D:-Temporal lobe metastatic lesion with bleed
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question86:-Which of the following is not a component of triple H therapy?
 A:-Hyperventilation
 B:-Hypertension
 C:-Hypervolemia
 D:-Hemodilution
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question87:-Which of the following cranial nerves exits from the dorsal aspect of brainstem?
 A:-Oculomotor nerve
 B:-Trochlear nerve
 C:-Abducent nerve
 D:-Vestibulocochlear nerve
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question88:-A patient who has undergone surgical clipping for a ruptured A-Com aneurysm becomes drowsy on the 6th
open operative day. What could be the probable cause for the drowsiness?
 A:-Vasospasm
 B:-Hydrocephalus
 C:-Hyponatremia
 D:-Any of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question89:-Which of the following cisterns is in closest relation to superior and inferior colliculi?
 A:-interpeduncular cistern
 B:-crural cistern
 C:-supra sellar cistern
 D:-quadrigeminal cistern
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question90:-Rosenthal fibres are commonly seen in
 A:-Pilocytic Astrocytoma
 B:-Oligodendroglioma
 C:-Medulloblastoma
 D:-Ependymoma
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question91:-Brodmann's area 17 is
 A:-Broca's area
 B:-Primary auditory area
 C:-Primary somatosensory area
 D:-Primary visual area
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question92:-The cranial nerve that passes through the anterosuperior compartment of Internal acoustic meatus is
 A:-Facial nerve
 B:-Cochlear nerve
 C:-Superor vestibular nerve
 D:-Inferior vestibular nerve
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question93:-Which among the following glial tumour is not a Grade I tumour according to the latest WHO classification?
 A:-Pilocytic astrocyotma
 B:-Subependymal Giant cell astrocytoma
 C:-Pleomorphic Xanthoastrocytoma
 D:-Desmoplatic infantile astrocytoma
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question94:-Which of the following extra ocular muscle caused depression of eye in abducted position?
 A:-Inferior Rectus
 B:-Inferior Oblique
 C:-Superior Rectus
 D:-Superior Oblique
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question95:-Lamina terminalis
 A:-Is in the roof of fourth ventricle
 B:-Is in the roof of third ventricle
 C:-Forms the floor of third ventricle
 D:-Forms the anterior wall of third ventricle
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question96:-Which among the following MRI sequences helps to differentiate an arachnoid cyst from an epidermoid?
 A:-Gradient Echo
 B:-FLAIR
 C:-Perfusion weighted images
 D:-Diffusion weighted images
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question97:-The type of Glioma commonly associated with Tuberous sclerosis is
 A:-Pilocytic astrocytoma
 B:-Oligodendroglioma
 C:-Ependymoma
 D:-Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question98:-The pituitary adenomas are called macroadenomas when the size is more than
 A:-1 cm
 B:-1 mm
 C:-2.5 cm
 D:-2.5 mm

 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question99:-Repetition is well preserved in
 A:-Brocas aphasia
 B:-Wernickes aphasia
 C:-Transcortical aphasia
 D:-Conduction aphasia
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question100:-Which of the following primary site is the commonest source of cerebral metastasis?
 A:-Lungs
 B:-Breast
 C:-Kidney
 D:-Gastro intestinal
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Agronomist Recruitment Exam Questions with Answer

Question1:-Which one of the following is NOT a land-use category?
 A:-Fallow land
 B:-Net area sown
 C:-Marginal land
 D:-Culturable wasteland
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question2:-Who got the golden boot award in the FIFA World Cup 2018?
 A:-Harry Kane
 B:-Ronaldo
 C:-Embappe
 D:-Luka Modric
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question3:-Which Indian Movement began with the famous 'Dandi March' of Gandhiji?
 A:-Quit India Movement
 B:-Non-Cooperation Movement
 C:-Khilafat Movement
 D:-Civil Disobedience Movement
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question4:-Who served as the first leader of the opposition in Lok Sabha in 1952?
 A:-Syamaprasad Mukherji
 B:-A.K. Gopalan
 C:-E.M.S. Namboothirippad
 D:-Y.B. Chavan
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question5:-Which one of the following South Indian states has the highest ground water utilisation (in percent) of its total
ground water potential?
 A:-Tamil Nadu
 B:-Andhra Pradesh
 C:-Karnataka
 D:-Kerala
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question6:-The sub collector of Thalassery who suppressed the revolt of Pazhassi Raja?
 A:-Lord Curzon
 B:-Robert Clive
 C:-Colonel Munro
 D:-T.H. Baber
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question7:-The name 'Karinthandan' was known in connection with
 A:-Nadukani pass
 B:-Thamarasseri pass
 C:-Aruvamozhi pass
 D:-Kuttiyadi pass
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question8:-Which one of the following types describes water as a resource?
 A:-Abiotic resource
 B:-Non-renewable resource
 C:-Biotic resource
 D:-Cyclic resource
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question9:-The only cricketer to score double century thrice in one day international cricket
 A:-Veerendar Sevag
 B:-Sachin Tendulkar
 C:-Rohit Sharma
 D:-Virat Kohli
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question10:-The original name of Thycaud Ayya
 A:-Kunjan Chattambi
 B:-Subbarayan
 C:-Muthukkutty
 D:-Kunhikannan
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question11:-In which one of the following states are the major oil fields located?
 A:-Assam
 B:-Bihar
 C:-Rajasthan
 D:-Tamil Nadu
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question12:-The social reformer who led the Kallumala Samaram?
 A:-Dr. Palppu
 B:-Vaghbhatananda
 C:-Ayyankali
 D:-Sahodaran Ayyappan
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question13:-Name of the Croatian President who was in the news during FIFA World Cup 2018.
 A:-Vladimer Putin
 B:-Kolinda Grabar - Kitarovik
 C:-Emmanuel Macron
 D:-Tony Blair
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question14:-Which of the following is non-renewable source of energy?
 A:-Hydel
 B:-Solar
 C:-Thermal
 D:-Wind power
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question15:-The smallest district in Kerala by population
 A:-Alappuzha
 B:-Palakkad
 C:-Kasargod
 D:-Wayanad
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question16:-The Vallarpadam Terminal, the only trans-shipment port is at which state?
 A:-Tamilnadu
 B:-Kerala
 C:-Andhra Pradesh
 D:-Maharashtra

 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question17:-Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park is in
 A:-Rameswaram
 B:-New Delhi
 C:-Ganga Sagar Island
 D:-Port Blair
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question18:-The Simon Commission was appointed during the period of which Viceroy?
 A:-Lord Irwin
 B:-Lord Wellington
 C:-Lord Chelmsford
 D:-Lord Curzon
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question19:-'Vayalvaram Veedu' was the name associated with which social reformer?
 A:-Pandit Karuppan
 B:-Sahodaran Ayyappan
 C:-Sree Narayana Guru
 D:-Chattambi Swamikal
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question20:-Twelfth Five Year Plan in India completed its term in
 A:-March 2014
 B:-March 2015
 C:-March 2016
 D:-March 2017
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question21:-Among the following terms which one is odd
 A:-Watershed
 B:-Command area
 C:-Catchment area
 D:-Drainage basin
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question22:-In 1:50,000 toposheet, contour lines are given at
 A:-20 km
 B:-10 km
 C:-25 km
 D:-50 km
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question23:-Plate like structure occur in
 A:-Surface horizon
 B:-B. Horizon
 C:-Any part of the profile
 D:-C. Horizon
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question24:-Soils of arid region are generally low in two constituents
 A:-P and K
 B:-Fe and Mn
 C:-OM and nitrogen
 D:-All the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question25:-Legumes have a marked preference for
 A:-Potassium
 B:-Calcium
 C:-Phosphate
 D:-Sulfate
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question26:-________ is a rare constituent of atomspheric precipitation.
 A:-`"NH_3"`
 B:-`"NO_2"`
 C:-`"NO_3"`
 D:-`"NO_2"` and organically bound nitrogen
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question27:-Accepted tolerable limit of annual soil loss is
 A:-16-20 Mg/ha
 B:-12-16 Mg/ha
 C:-4-12 Mg/ha
 D:-20-25 Mg/ha

 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question28:-The most easily eroded soil particles are having size in the range of
 A:-0.01 mm to 0.05 mm
 B:-0.10 mm to 0.20 mm
 C:-0.05 mm to 0.10 mm
 D:-0.10 mm to 0.50 mm
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question29:-________ form of sulfur is predominant in humid region surface soil.
 A:-Mineral
 B:-Inorganic
 C:-Organic
 D:-All the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question30:-Reclamation of sodic soils is usually done by
 A:-Gypsum application
 B:-Leaching with water
 C:-Sulfur application
 D:-Gypsum application and leaching with water
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question31:-An index which is widely used to represent quantum of aggregates
 A:->1.0 mm
 B:-1.0 mm
 C:-0.5 mm
 D:->0.25 mm
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question32:-`SO_4^{2-}` adsorption is restricted to
 A:-Acidic soils
 B:-Alkaline soils
 C:-Neutral soils
 D:-Neutral to alkaline soils
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question33:-Azotobacter chroococcum is found in
 A:-Near neutral soil condition
 B:-Alkaline soil condition
 C:-Acidic soil condition
 D:-Near neutral and slightly alkaline condition
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question34:-The deficiency range of hot water extractable boron is
 A:-<0.5 mg/kg
 B:-<1.0 mg/kg
 C:-<0.1 mg/kg
 D:-<2.0 mg/kg
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question35:-Safe limit of nitrate in drinking water is
 A:-10 mg/L
 B:-45 mg/L
 C:-20 mg/L
 D:-5 mg/L
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question36:-_________ is a nitrification inhibitor.
 A:-Isibutylidene diurea
 B:-Neem cake
 C:-Urea form
 D:-All the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question37:-The first objective of watershed management is
 A:-Enhancement of agricultural productivity
 B:-Improvement of water yields
 C:-Conservation of natural resources
 D:-Rehabilitation of natural resources
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question38:-_________ are an important part of "Ela" system.
 A:-Arable lands
 B:-Non arable lands
 C:-Village streams
 D:-Grazing lands
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question39:-Mini watershed has an area of ________ square kilometer.
 A:-1-10
 B:-10-100
 C:-<1.0
 D:-100-200
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question40:-Rainfall in excess of _________ is always causing runoff.
 A:->50.0 mm/day
 B:->12.5 mm/day
 C:->10.0 mm/day
 D:->25.0 mm/day
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question41:-Soil surveys began in the year
 A:-1869
 B:-1899
 C:-1929
 D:-1935
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question42:-The name "Ustochrept" is used to identify a
 A:-Suborder
 B:-Great group
 C:-Subgroup
 D:-None of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question43:-Regur formation is dominant in
 A:-Laterite soil
 B:-Podzols
 C:-Saline soils
 D:-Black cotton soil
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question44:-In soils, cohesion is due to
 A:-Vander Waal's forces
 B:-Electrostatic attraction
 C:-Cationic bridge
 D:-All the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question45:-The general range of organic matter content of mineral soils is
 A:-0.5-1.5%
 B:-2.0-5.0%
 C:-1.0-20.0%
 D:-1.0-10.0%
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question46:-Erosivity index was developed by
 A:-Wischmeir
 B:-Wischmeir and Smith
 C:-Smith
 D:-Kohnke and Bertrand
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question47:-In the Universal soil loss equation, factors that are amenable to manipulation are
 A:-R and K
 B:-L and S
 C:-C and P
 D:-All the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question48:-The first earth resource technology satellite is
 A:-IRS - 1A
 B:-IRS - 1B
 C:-IRS - 1C
 D:-ERST - 1
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question49:-The number of phases to be completed in planning and execution of watershed management programme
 A:-4
 B:-3
 C:-5
 D:-6
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question50:-The year of start of NWDPRA is
 A:-1987
 B:-1988
 C:-1986
 D:-1989
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question51:-The number of major categories of soil grouping in the land capability classification is
 A:-8
 B:-3
 C:-4
 D:-2
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question52:-The USLE model applies to
 A:-Sheet and Rill erosion
 B:-Gully or stream bank erosion
 C:-Soil loss from watersheds
 D:-Soil loss from individual storms
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question53:-The speed corresponding to the energy needed for runoff to detach soil particles is
 A:->10 cm/S
 B:->25 cm/S
 C:->30 cm/S
 D:->40 cm/S
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question54:-Crops suited for cultivation in land with gentle slopes
 A:-Close growing crops
 B:-Any type of crop
 C:-Tree crops
 D:-Semi perennials
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question55:-_________ ha is taken as a unit for planning water shed development programme at the village level.
 A:-500 ha
 B:-1-50 ha
 C:-50-100 ha
 D:-500-1000 ha
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question56:-Classification scheme proposed by Vames (1978) is used to classify
 A:-Landslides
 B:-Gullies
 C:-Sheet erosion
 D:-Fluvial erosion
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question57:-National Rainfed Area Authority was set up Govt. of India in the year
 A:-2005
 B:-2006
 C:-2007
 D:-2008
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question58:-The extent of vegetation cover required to prevent splash erosion is
 A:-50%
 B:-55%
 C:-60%
 D:-70%
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question59:-When the degree of slope doubles, the amount of erosion per unit are increases by
 A:-1%
 B:-2%
 C:-2.5%
 D:-4%
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question60:-Which one of the following compounds contains highest % of `"P_2O_5"`
 A:-Triple superphosphate
 B:-Single superphosphate
 C:-Enriched superphosphate
 D:-Superphosphoric acid
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question61:-The ratio of total area cropped in a year to the land area available for cultivation and expressed in percentage
is the _________
 A:-Cultivated land utilization index
 B:-Multiple cropping index
 C:-Crop intensity index
 D:-Relative cropping intensity index
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question62:-The deep clay to clay loam soils developed in the semi acid areas of Deccan plateau are known as ________
 A:-Alfisols
 B:-Vertisols
 C:-Inceptisols
 D:-Entisols
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question63:-1 bar = _________ cm of water column (approximately)
 A:-100 mm
 B:-75 cm
 C:-100 cm
 D:-1000 cm
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question64:-Conservation tillage system are methods of soil tillage which leave at least ________ per cent of the crop residue
on the soil surface.
 A:-5
 B:-10
 C:-20
 D:-30
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question65:-The seed rate to be adopted for a crop depends on the plant spacing, test weight and _______
 A:-size of seed
 B:-area to be planted
 C:-yield potential
 D:-germination percentage
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question66:-Hyper acid zones are those having an aridity index of __________
 A:-<0.03
 B:-0.03 to 0.10
 C:-0.03 to <0.20
 D:-0.20 to 0.50
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question67:-In India, __________ percent of total annual rainfall is received during the South West monsoon season.
 A:-75
 B:-65
 C:-50
 D:-40
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question68:-Among the following, __________ is not an implement for secondary tillage.
 A:-Cultivator
 B:-Disc plough
 C:-Harrow
 D:-Plank and roller
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question69:-A cropping system in which crop intensification occurs only in time dimension is ________
 A:-Multi tier cropping
 B:-Sequential cropping
 C:-Relay cropping
 D:-Mixed cropping
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question70:-The 'stress hormone' which imparts drought tolerance to plant is ________
 A:-IAA
 B:-ABA
 C:-GA
 D:-Cytokinin
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question71:-Underground layer of porous rocks or soils saturated with water from above which yield significant amounts of
water are called __________
 A:-aquicludes
 B:-aquifers
 C:-aquitards
 D:-water tables
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question72:-__________ is defined as the physical condition of the soil in relation to crop growth.
 A:-Mellowness
 B:-Friability
 C:-Tilth
 D:-Aggregation
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question73:-Growing of two or more crops simultaneously on the same piece of land with a definite row pattern is known as
__________
 A:-Intercropping
 B:-Multiple cropping
 C:-Relay cropping
 D:-Polyculture
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question74:-The Central Soil and Water Conservation Research and Training Institute is located at ___________
 A:-Dehradun
 B:-Pantnagar
 C:-Lucknow
 D:-Hyderabad
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question75:-__________ law states that the flow of water through a unit cross section of soil is proportional to the gradient of
hydraulic head.
 A:-Beer's
 B:-Bernouli's
 C:-Liebig's
 D:-Darcy's
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question76:-__________ is a herbicide used for weed control in zero tillage.
 A:-2,4-D
 B:-Oxyfluorfen
 C:-Glyphosate
 D:-Cyhalofop butyl
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question77:-Overall biological advantage of intercropping is indicated when the LER is __________
 A:-1
 B:-<1
 C:->1
 D:-0
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question78:-Climatic clarification based on moisture index, seasonal variation in rainfall, humidity index and aridity index
was proposed by __________
 A:-Koppen
 B:-Troll
 C:-Gaussen
 D:-Thornthwaite and Mather
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question79:-The upper limit of available moisture for plants is given by the soil moisture constant, _________
 A:-maximum water holding capacity
 B:-field capacity
 C:-permanent wilting point
 D:-hygroscopic co-efficient
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question80:-The main objective of stubble mulch tillage is _________
 A:-weed control
 B:-improved soil aeration
 C:-reduced evaporation
 D:-soil and water conservation
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question81:-Competition between associated crops in mixed crop communities has been discussed in depth by __________
 A:-Beer
 B:-Donald
 C:-De wit
 D:-Willey
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question82:-Dryland farming is the cultivation of crops in regions with annual precipitation of __________
 A:-<1500 mm
 B:-<750 mm
 C:->750 mm
 D:->1500 mm
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question83:-The moisture index of a humid (B3) region falls in the range of _________
 A:-100 and above
 B:-80 to 100
 C:-60 to 80
 D:-40 to 60
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question84:-_________ is considered the Father of Tillage.
 A:-Pietro de Cresenzi
 B:-Jethro Tull
 C:-Justus Von Liebig
 D:-Boussinghault
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question85:-If the yields of groundnut and red gram grown as pure crops are 1200 and 1000 kg/ha respectively, and their
yields as intercrops are 1000 and 600 kg/ha respectively, the land equivalent ratio of groundnut + red gram intercropping
system is ___________
 A:-2.8
 B:-1.43
 C:-1.5
 D:-1.8
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question86:-NICRA programme launched by ICAR during the XI plan period focuses on ____________
 A:-Climate Resilient Agriculture
 B:-Crop Resurrection Agriculture
 C:-Continuous Rainfed Agriculture
 D:-Conservation and Restoration Agriculture
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question87:-Crop coefficient is the ratio between ___________
 A:-Etc and ETo
 B:-PET and ETo
 C:-PET and ETc
 D:-PE and PET
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question88:-A gradient of __________ degrees is the limit of operating efficiency for machines working on slopes.
 A:-6-8
 B:-8-10
 C:-10-12
 D:-12-14
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question89:-An example for a Sloping Agricultural Land Technology (SALT) is __________
 A:-Jhum
 B:-Taungya
 C:-Modan
 D:-Diara
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question90:-_________ is an example of a reflectant type anti transparent.
 A:-Phenyl mercuric acetate
 B:-Mobi-leaf
 C:-Ascorbic acid
 D:-Kaoline
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question91:-The method of irrigation adopted for widely spaced plants like coconut palms is _________
 A:-ring basin method
 B:-furrow method
 C:-check basin method
 D:-border irrigation
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question92:-Which of the following is not used as a cover crop for soil and water conservation?
 A:-Mikania
 B:-Calopo
 C:-Centro
 D:-Mucuna
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question93:-The Farming Systems Research Station under the Kerala Agricultural University is located at ___________
 A:-Thiruvalla
 B:-Balaramapuram
 C:-Kottarakkara
 D:-Kumarakom
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question94:-Vertical mulching is a practice commonly followed to improve infiltration and storage of rain water in __________
soils.
 A:-red
 B:-alluvial
 C:-laterite
 D:-black
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question95:-In general, bulk density of soil ranges from __________ g/`text(cm)^3` .
 A:-2 to 3
 B:-0.5 to 0.75
 C:-1 to 1.5
 D:-5 to 7.5
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question96:-Tillage operations carried out in the standing crop are together called __________
 A:-secondary tillage
 B:-earthing up
 C:-after cultivation
 D:-inter cultivation
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question97:-A practice in multiple cropping system which helps to control problematic weeds and pests is ___________
 A:-strip cropping
 B:-relay cropping
 C:-crop rotation
 D:-multi-tier cropping
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question98:-The land configuration recommended by ICRISAT for medium to deep black soils receiving 700-1300 mm
rainfall and up to a maximum of 5 percent slope is __________
 A:-dead furrows
 B:-catch pits
 C:-broad beds and furrows
 D:-tied ridges
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question99:-The amount of water required for each irrigation for scheduling irrigation at IW/CPE ratio of 0.5 with 10 cm of
CPE is ___________
 A:-0.05 cm
 B:-5 cm
 C:-20 cm

 D:-10.5 cm
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question100:-The process of deep ploughing done to break open hard pans is known as ___________
 A:-sub soiling
 B:-basin listing
 C:-discing
 D:-scooping
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Ophthalmic Assistant Recruitment Exam Questions with Answer

Exam: Ophthalmic Assistant Gr II (SR For SC/ST)
Medium of Question: English
No. of Questions: 100
Answers: Available

Question 1:-1 mm increase in axial length of eye produces myopia of
 A:-3 Diopter
 B:-6 Diopter
 C:-1 Diopter
 D:-4.5 Diopter
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question 2:-Newborn eyes are usually
 A:-Myopic
 B:-Hypermetropic
 C:-Emmetropic
 D:-Astigmatic
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question 3:-Senile nuclear cataract produces
 A:-Index myopia
 B:-Index hypermetropia
 C:-Curvature myopia
 D:-Curvature hypermetropia
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question 4:-All the following drugs are cycloplegics EXCEPT
 A:-Atropine
 B:-Cyclopentolate
 C:-Homatropine
 D:-Pilocarpine
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question 5:-All the following are true about Rigid Gear Permeable lenses EXCEPT
 A:-Provides sharp vision
 B:-Require adaptation
 C:-Poor oxygen delivery
 D:-Associated with minimal deposits
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question 6:-High index lenses have a refractive index of about
 A:-1.56-1.67
 B:-1.42-1.52
 C:-1.84-1.88
 D:-1.38-1.40
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question 7:-Refractive index of crown glass
 A:-1.67
 B:-1.52
 C:-1.73
 D:-1.58
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question 8:-The handle of cross cylinder is at an angle of __________ degrees to both axes.
 A:-45 degrees
 B:-90 degrees
 C:-30 degrees
 D:-60 degrees
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question 9:-Soft contact lenses are made of
 A:-Polymethyl methacrylate (PMMA)
 B:-Silicone
 C:-Cellulose acetate butyrate
 D:-Hydroxy ethylmethacrylate (HEMA)
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question 10:-Binocular diplopia is seen in
 A:-Paralytic squint
 B:-Concomitant squint
 C:-Cataract
 D:-Subluxation of lens
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question 11:-Visual acuity of 6/60 is equivalent to Log MAR
 A:-+0.5
 B:-+0.1
 C:-+1
 D:-+0.6
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question12:-Superior extent of the visual field is
 A:-90 degrees
 B:-60 degrees
 C:-80 degrees
 D:-50 degrees
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question 13:-Pelli Robson chart in used to assess
 A:-Visual acuity in children
 B:-Colour vision
 C:-Contrast sensitivity
 D:-Dark adaptation
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question 14:-In acute angle closure glaucoma, the anterior chamber is
 A:-shallow
 B:-Deep
 C:-Normal
 D:-Irregular
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question 15:-Instrument used to assess the angle of Anterior Chamber
 A:-90 D lens
 B:-Gonioscope
 C:-Hruby lens
 D:-20 D lens
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question 16:-All of the following are true of applanation tonometry EXCEPT
 A:-Based on Imbert Fick Principle
 B:-More accurate than Schiotz
 C:-Flatters an area of 3.06 mm diameter
 D:-Less accurate than Schiotz
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question 17:-Primary action of superior oblique muscle is
 A:-Elevation
 B:-Depressive
 C:-Intorsion
 D:-Adduction
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question 18:-Radius of curvature of the posterior surface of lens
 A:-10 mm
 B:-6 mm
 C:-12 mm
 D:-4 mm
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question 19:-Bending of light as it passes along the edge of an object
 A:-Spherical aberration
 B:-Diffraction
 C:-Chromatic aberration
 D:-Decentration
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question 20:-Amount of hypermetropia normally corrected by the inherent tone of ciliary muscle
 A:-Facultative
 B:-Manifest
 C:-Latent
 D:-Absolute
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question41:-Normal depth of anterior chamber is
 A:-5 mm
 B:-4.5 mm
 C:-2.5 mm
 D:-1 mm
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question42:-The amplitude of accommodation at the age of 10 years
 A:-3 Diopter
 B:-14 Diopter

 C:-10 Diopter
 D:-5 Diopter
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question43:-All the following signs are usually associated with myopia EXCEPT
 A:-Large eyeball
 B:-Deep anterior chamber
 C:-Esophoria
 D:-Exophoria
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question44:-Astigmatism in which the two principal meridians are not at right angles to each other?
 A:-Oblique astigmatism
 B:-Regular astigmatism with the rule
 C:-Irregular astigmatism
 D:-Bi oblique astigmatism
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question45:-All the following are features of aphakia EXCEPT
 A:-Deep anterior chamber
 B:-Iridodonesis
 C:-Jet black pupil
 D:-Shallow anterior chamber
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question46:-Image magnification with aphakic spectacle lens is
 A:-10%
 B:-30%
 C:-5%
 D:-8%
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question47:-Large corneal scar usually produces
 A:-Irregular astigmatism
 B:-Bi oblique astigmatism
 C:-Oblique astigmatism
 D:-Regular astigmatism against the rule
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question48:-All the following are true of pterygium EXCEPT
 A:-Occurs more commonly in elderly people doing outdoor work
 B:-Seen in the interpalpebral exposed areas
 C:-Never progresses
 D:-Seen as a triangular fold of conjunctiva loosely adherent to sclera
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question49:-Lateral rectus muscle is supplied by
 A:-Third cranial nerve
 B:-Fourth cranial nerve
 C:-Second cranial nerve
 D:-Sixth cranial nerve
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question50:-Convergence weakness produces
 A:-Exophoria greater for near
 B:-Esophoria greater for near
 C:-Exophoria greater for distance
 D:-Esophoria greater for distance
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question51:-Most common childhood intraocular malignant tumour
 A:-Malignant melanoma
 B:-Retinoblastoma
 C:-Lymphoma
 D:-Hemangioma
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question52:-National programme for control of blindness was launched in the year
 A:-1983
 B:-1990
 C:-1976
 D:-1996
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question53:-Maddox wing is used for
 A:-Subjective testing of phoria for near
 B:-Subjective testing of phoria for distance
 C:-Detecting suppression
 D:-Testing stereopsis
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question54:-Occlusion or patching of better eye is the mainstay of treatment for
 A:-Anomalous retinal correspondence
 B:-Suppression
 C:-Eccentric fixation
 D:-Amblyopia
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question55:-In Duochrome test, if the patient appreciates red better than green, it indicates correction is
 A:-Hypermetropic
 B:-Myopic
 C:-Emmetropic
 D:-Astigmatic
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question56:-When retinoscopy is done at 1 metre distance and there is no movement of red reflex, it indicates
 A:-Hypermetropia of 1 Diopter
 B:-Myopia >1 Diopter
 C:-Myopia of 1 Diopter
 D:-Hypermetropia >1 Diopter
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question57:-Dendritic corneal ulcer is caused by
 A:-Pneumococcus
 B:-Staphylococcus
 C:-Fusarium
 D:-Herpes simplex virus
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question58:-Corneal curvature is measured by
 A:-Keratometry
 B:-A scan
 C:-Pachymetry
 D:-Specular microscopy
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question59:-If the visual acuity improves with pinhole, the cause of defective vision is
 A:-Cataract
 B:-Refractive error
 C:-Macular degeneration
 D:-Corneal opacity
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question60:-Which is true about aphakic glasses?
 A:-Image magnification of 80%
 B:-Best method to correct aphakia
 C:-Produces spherical aberrations causing pin cushion distortion
 D:-Wider field of vision
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question61:-Which of the following is not a contraindication for use of donor cornea?
 A:-Rabies
 B:-HIV
 C:-Myopia
 D:-Death from unknown cause
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question62:-On cover-uncover test, if there is inward movement of eye under cover, it indicates
 A:-Exophoria
 B:-Esophoria
 C:-Orthophoria
 D:-Esotropia
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question63:-In worth's four dot test, if the patient sees only two red lights, indicates
 A:-Diplopia
 B:-Abnormal retinal correspondence
 C:-Normal binocular vision
 D:-Left eye suppression
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question64:-In Schirmer's 1 test, if the wetting is between 5 and 10 mm, it indicates
 A:-Severe dry eye
 B:-Normal
 C:-Moderate dry eye
 D:-Mild dry eye
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question65:-Corneal thickness is measured by
 A:-Placidos disc
 B:-Pachymeter
 C:-A scan
 D:-90 D lens
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question66:-Mydriatic cycloplegic drug is indicated in which of the following condition?
 A:-Acute iridocyclitis
 B:-Acute conjunctivitis
 C:-Acute congestive glaucoma
 D:-Episcleritis
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question67:-Which of the following is an ocular emergency?
 A:-Cataract
 B:-Viral conjunctivitis
 C:-Open angle glaucoma
 D:-Acute congestive glaucoma
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question68:-Unit of measurement of convergence
 A:-Diopter
 B:-Metre angle
 C:-Millimeter
 D:-Degrees
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question69:-Snowflake cataract is seen in
 A:-Trauma
 B:-Steroid use
 C:-Hyperparathyroidism
 D:-Diabetes
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question70:-One predisposing factor for hordeolum externum
 A:-Hypertension
 B:-Uncorrected refractive error
 C:-Ptosis
 D:-Proptosis
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question71:-Vertex power of spectacle lens is measured by
 A:-Optical pachymeter
 B:-Specular microscope
 C:-Hruby lens
 D:-Lensometer
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question72:-All the following are features of Vitamin A deficiency EXCEPT
 A:-Night blindness
 B:-Bitots spots
 C:-Phlycten
 D:-Keratomalacia
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question73:-Keratometer is useful for all the following conditions EXCEPT
 A:-Measure the radius of curvature of anterior surface of cornea
 B:-IOL power calculation

 C:-Measurement of corneal astigmatic error
 D:-Measurement of corneal endothelial cell count
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question74:-Darkening of lens on exposure to UV rays in photochromic lenses is due to disintegration of
 A:-Aluminium phosphate
 B:-Silver Halide
 C:-Borosilicate
 D:-Polycarbonate
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question75:-Instrument used to assess peripheral retina
 A:-90 dioptre lens
 B:-Direct ophthalmoscope
 C:-Optical coherence tomograph
 D:-Indirect ophthalmoscopy
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question76:-All the following condition can cause coloured haloes EXCEPT
 A:-Cataract
 B:-Acute narrow angle glaucoma
 C:-Episcleritis
 D:-Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question77:-Instrument used to predict the visual acuity following cataract surgery
 A:-Potential acuity meter
 B:-Arden gratings
 C:-Pelli Robson chart
 D:-Vistech chart
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question78:-Commonest cause of bilateral proptosis
 A:-Orbital tumours
 B:-Orbital cellulitis
 C:-Thyroid ophthalmopathy
 D:-Orbital hemorrhage
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question79:-Which of the following is a feature of concave lens?
 A:-Object moves in the same direction as the lens
 B:-Object moves in the opposite direction of the lens
 C:-Object appears magnified
 D:-Distortion of image when lens is rotated
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question80:-Which of the following tonometry is not based on applanation?
 A:-Air puff tonometer
 B:-Schiotz tonometer
 C:-Tonopen
 D:-Noncontact tonometers
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question81:-Which dye is used for identifying corneal epithelial defect?
 A:-Indocyanine green
 B:-Fluorescein
 C:-Rose Bengal

 D:-Trypan Blue
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question82:-Which laser is used for treating after cataract?
 A:-Nd YAG laser
 B:-Argon laser
 C:-Diode laser
 D:-Ruby laser
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question83:-Roving ring scotoma is seen in
 A:-Pseudophakia
 B:-High myopia
 C:-Glaucoma
 D:-Aphakia corrected with spectacles
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question84:-SAFE (Surgery, Antibiotics, Face washing, Environment) strategy is for control of
 A:-Glaucoma
 B:-Dacryocystitis
 C:-Trachoma
 D:-Corneal ulcer
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question85:-All are used to check visual acuity in children EXCEPT
 A:-VEP
 B:-Perimetry
 C:-Cardiff acuity cards
 D:-Teller acuity cards
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question86:-All are features of concomitant squint EXCEPT
 A:-No diplopia
 B:-Primary deviation equals secondary deviation
 C:-Abnormal head posture
 D:-No restriction of ocular movements
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question87:-Amblyopia in children is most commonly caused by
 A:-Hypermetropia
 B:-Astigmatism
 C:-Myopia
 D:-Congenital cataract
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question88:-Most common organism causing corneal ulcer in contact lens wearers?
 A:-Pneumococci
 B:-Staphylococci
 C:-Fusarium
 D:-Pseudomonas
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question89:-Magnification obtained with a direct ophthalmoscope
 A:-10 times
 B:-20 times
 C:-5 times
 D:-15 times
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question90:-Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment is a complication associated with which refractive error?
 A:-Myopia
 B:-Hypermetropia
 C:-Astigmatism
 D:-Presbyopia
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question91:-Following are the target diseases identified for vision 2020 in India EXCEPT
 A:-Cataract
 B:-Onchocerciasis
 C:-Childhood blindness
 D:-Glaucoma
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question92:-Linen, dressings and metallic instruments are generally sterilized by
 A:-Autoclave
 B:-Hot-air oven
 C:-Ethylene oxide
 D:-Chemical sterilization
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question93:-The far point is beyond infinity or behind the eye in
 A:-Myopia
 B:-Astigmatism
 C:-Presbyopia
 D:-Hypermetropia
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question94:-Most common cause of low vision in children?
 A:-Cataract
 B:-Corneal opacity
 C:-Refractive error
 D:-Strabismus
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question95:-Which is not true of congenital esotropia?
 A:-Occurs before 6 months of age
 B:-Large angle of deviation
 C:-Associated with cross fixation
 D:-Associated with high hypermetropia
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question96:-The normal AC/A ratio perdiopter of accommodation is
 A:-6-10 prism diopters
 B:-3-5 prism diopters
 C:-1-2 prism diopters
 D:-12-15 prism diopters
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question97:-Which of the following conditions produce sudden loss of vision?
 A:-Central retinal artery occlusion
 B:-Primary open angle glaucoma
 C:-Cataract
 D:-Retinitis pigmentosa
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question98:-In which of the following conditions is topical steroids indicated?
 A:-Acute bacterial conjunctivitis
 B:-Allergic conjunctivitis
 C:-Corneal ulcer
 D:-Acute dacryocystitis
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question99:-Which of the following is not true about direct ophthalmoscopy?
 A:-Uniocular procedure
 B:-Image magnified 15 times
 C:-Image is real and inverted
 D:-Central fundus up to equator is seen
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question100:-Which is true about pseudopterygium?
 A:-Is a degenerative condition
 B:-Probe cannot be passed beneath it
 C:-Always stationary
 D:-Follows exposure to ultraviolet rays or dust
 Correct Answer:- Option-C


Question1:-Which of the following states of India has the longest coast line?
 A:-Andra Pradesh
 B:-Maharastra
 C:-Odisha
 D:-West Bengal
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question2:-The largest river in India
 A:-Yamuna
 B:-Brahmaputra
 C:-Ganga
 D:-Sindhu
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question3:-The first bullet train project of India connects
 A:-Mumbai-Pune
 B:-Ahmedabad-Mumbai
 C:-Delhi-Patna
 D:-Delhi-Amritsar
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question4:-Kerala State Law Reform Commission Chairman
 A:-Dr. N.K. Jayakumar
 B:-Sasidharan Nair
 C:-Adv. M.K. Damodaran
 D:-Justice K.T. Thomas
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question5:-Azad Hind Fauj was founded by
 A:-Rash Behari Bose
 B:-Subash Chandra Bose
 C:-Liaqat Ali
 D:-Maulana Azad
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question6:-Who was regarded as the father of Indian unrest?
 A:-Mahatma Gandhi
 B:-Subash Chandra Bose
 C:-Bal Gangadhar Tilak
 D:-Mohammed Ali Jinna
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question7:-Who is the newly elected Chief Minister of Goa?
 A:-Manohar Pareekar
 B:-Beeran Singh
 C:-Amareendar Singh
 D:-Trivendra Singh Ravath
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question8:-Who is the author of the Book 'India Wins Freedom'?
 A:-Indira Gandhi
 B:-Jawaharlal Nehru
 C:-Gopalakrishna Gokhale
 D:-Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question9:-Dr. Abdul Kalam island is situates in the coast of
 A:-West Bengal
 B:-Odisha
 C:-Gujarat
 D:-Tamilnadu
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question10:-The heroin of Quit India Movement
 A:-Sarojini Naidu
 B:-Beegam Hazrath Mahal
 C:-Aruna Asafali
 D:-Sujetha Kripalani
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question11:-Who is the second vice-chairman of NITI Aayog?
 A:-Dr. Rajiv Kumar
 B:-Aravind Panagaria
 C:-Dr. Bibek Debroy
 D:-Dr. Bimal Jalan
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question12:-Who was the leader of Paik Rebellion of 1817?
 A:-Rani Laksmibhai
 B:-Bakshi Jagabandhu
 C:-Asadulla Khan
 D:-Tanthiya Topi
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question13:-''Katora Kudaram'' a notable work of
 A:-Vikam Mohammed Basheer
 B:-Dr. C.K. Kareem
 C:-Makthi Thangal
 D:-Ali Musliar
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question14:-The leader of Ezhava Memorial of 1896
 A:-Ayyankali
 B:-Dr. Vasudev
 C:-K. Kelappan
 D:-Dr. Palpu
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question15:-The king who proclaimed Temple entry
 A:-Ayillyam Thirunnal
 B:-Swathi Thirunnal
 C:-Sremulam Thirunnal
 D:-Sree Chithira Thirunnal
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question16:-The Swach Bharath Abhiyan announced the cleanest city in India in 2017 is
 A:-Indore
 B:-Mysore
 C:-Mumbai
 D:-Chandigarh
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question17:-Oscar Award for the Best film for the year 2017
 A:-The Jungle Book
 B:-Moon Light
 C:-The Salesman
 D:-La La Land
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question18:-The founder of ''Sadhu Jana Paripalana Yogam''
 A:-Sree Narayana Guru
 B:-Vakkam Abdul Khadar Maulavi
 C:-Ayyankali
 D:-Sahodaran Ayyappan
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question19:-The first Governor of Reserve Bank of India
 A:-James Braid Taylor
 B:-Dr. Man Mohan Singh
 C:-Bimal Jalan
 D:-Osborne Smith
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question20:-Silent Valley National Park situates in the district of
 A:-Palakkad
 B:-Wynad
 C:-Edukki
 D:-Pathanamthitta
 Correct Answer:- Option-A