Ophthalmic Assistant Recruitment Exam Questions with Answer

Exam: Ophthalmic Assistant Gr II (SR For SC/ST)
Medium of Question: English
No. of Questions: 100
Answers: Available

Question 1:-1 mm increase in axial length of eye produces myopia of
 A:-3 Diopter
 B:-6 Diopter
 C:-1 Diopter
 D:-4.5 Diopter
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question 2:-Newborn eyes are usually
 A:-Myopic
 B:-Hypermetropic
 C:-Emmetropic
 D:-Astigmatic
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question 3:-Senile nuclear cataract produces
 A:-Index myopia
 B:-Index hypermetropia
 C:-Curvature myopia
 D:-Curvature hypermetropia
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question 4:-All the following drugs are cycloplegics EXCEPT
 A:-Atropine
 B:-Cyclopentolate
 C:-Homatropine
 D:-Pilocarpine
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question 5:-All the following are true about Rigid Gear Permeable lenses EXCEPT
 A:-Provides sharp vision
 B:-Require adaptation
 C:-Poor oxygen delivery
 D:-Associated with minimal deposits
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question 6:-High index lenses have a refractive index of about
 A:-1.56-1.67
 B:-1.42-1.52
 C:-1.84-1.88
 D:-1.38-1.40
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question 7:-Refractive index of crown glass
 A:-1.67
 B:-1.52
 C:-1.73
 D:-1.58
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question 8:-The handle of cross cylinder is at an angle of __________ degrees to both axes.
 A:-45 degrees
 B:-90 degrees
 C:-30 degrees
 D:-60 degrees
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question 9:-Soft contact lenses are made of
 A:-Polymethyl methacrylate (PMMA)
 B:-Silicone
 C:-Cellulose acetate butyrate
 D:-Hydroxy ethylmethacrylate (HEMA)
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question 10:-Binocular diplopia is seen in
 A:-Paralytic squint
 B:-Concomitant squint
 C:-Cataract
 D:-Subluxation of lens
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question 11:-Visual acuity of 6/60 is equivalent to Log MAR
 A:-+0.5
 B:-+0.1
 C:-+1
 D:-+0.6
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question12:-Superior extent of the visual field is
 A:-90 degrees
 B:-60 degrees
 C:-80 degrees
 D:-50 degrees
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question 13:-Pelli Robson chart in used to assess
 A:-Visual acuity in children
 B:-Colour vision
 C:-Contrast sensitivity
 D:-Dark adaptation
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question 14:-In acute angle closure glaucoma, the anterior chamber is
 A:-shallow
 B:-Deep
 C:-Normal
 D:-Irregular
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question 15:-Instrument used to assess the angle of Anterior Chamber
 A:-90 D lens
 B:-Gonioscope
 C:-Hruby lens
 D:-20 D lens
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question 16:-All of the following are true of applanation tonometry EXCEPT
 A:-Based on Imbert Fick Principle
 B:-More accurate than Schiotz
 C:-Flatters an area of 3.06 mm diameter
 D:-Less accurate than Schiotz
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question 17:-Primary action of superior oblique muscle is
 A:-Elevation
 B:-Depressive
 C:-Intorsion
 D:-Adduction
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question 18:-Radius of curvature of the posterior surface of lens
 A:-10 mm
 B:-6 mm
 C:-12 mm
 D:-4 mm
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question 19:-Bending of light as it passes along the edge of an object
 A:-Spherical aberration
 B:-Diffraction
 C:-Chromatic aberration
 D:-Decentration
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question 20:-Amount of hypermetropia normally corrected by the inherent tone of ciliary muscle
 A:-Facultative
 B:-Manifest
 C:-Latent
 D:-Absolute
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question41:-Normal depth of anterior chamber is
 A:-5 mm
 B:-4.5 mm
 C:-2.5 mm
 D:-1 mm
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question42:-The amplitude of accommodation at the age of 10 years
 A:-3 Diopter
 B:-14 Diopter

 C:-10 Diopter
 D:-5 Diopter
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question43:-All the following signs are usually associated with myopia EXCEPT
 A:-Large eyeball
 B:-Deep anterior chamber
 C:-Esophoria
 D:-Exophoria
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question44:-Astigmatism in which the two principal meridians are not at right angles to each other?
 A:-Oblique astigmatism
 B:-Regular astigmatism with the rule
 C:-Irregular astigmatism
 D:-Bi oblique astigmatism
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question45:-All the following are features of aphakia EXCEPT
 A:-Deep anterior chamber
 B:-Iridodonesis
 C:-Jet black pupil
 D:-Shallow anterior chamber
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question46:-Image magnification with aphakic spectacle lens is
 A:-10%
 B:-30%
 C:-5%
 D:-8%
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question47:-Large corneal scar usually produces
 A:-Irregular astigmatism
 B:-Bi oblique astigmatism
 C:-Oblique astigmatism
 D:-Regular astigmatism against the rule
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question48:-All the following are true of pterygium EXCEPT
 A:-Occurs more commonly in elderly people doing outdoor work
 B:-Seen in the interpalpebral exposed areas
 C:-Never progresses
 D:-Seen as a triangular fold of conjunctiva loosely adherent to sclera
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question49:-Lateral rectus muscle is supplied by
 A:-Third cranial nerve
 B:-Fourth cranial nerve
 C:-Second cranial nerve
 D:-Sixth cranial nerve
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question50:-Convergence weakness produces
 A:-Exophoria greater for near
 B:-Esophoria greater for near
 C:-Exophoria greater for distance
 D:-Esophoria greater for distance
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question51:-Most common childhood intraocular malignant tumour
 A:-Malignant melanoma
 B:-Retinoblastoma
 C:-Lymphoma
 D:-Hemangioma
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question52:-National programme for control of blindness was launched in the year
 A:-1983
 B:-1990
 C:-1976
 D:-1996
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question53:-Maddox wing is used for
 A:-Subjective testing of phoria for near
 B:-Subjective testing of phoria for distance
 C:-Detecting suppression
 D:-Testing stereopsis
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question54:-Occlusion or patching of better eye is the mainstay of treatment for
 A:-Anomalous retinal correspondence
 B:-Suppression
 C:-Eccentric fixation
 D:-Amblyopia
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question55:-In Duochrome test, if the patient appreciates red better than green, it indicates correction is
 A:-Hypermetropic
 B:-Myopic
 C:-Emmetropic
 D:-Astigmatic
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question56:-When retinoscopy is done at 1 metre distance and there is no movement of red reflex, it indicates
 A:-Hypermetropia of 1 Diopter
 B:-Myopia >1 Diopter
 C:-Myopia of 1 Diopter
 D:-Hypermetropia >1 Diopter
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question57:-Dendritic corneal ulcer is caused by
 A:-Pneumococcus
 B:-Staphylococcus
 C:-Fusarium
 D:-Herpes simplex virus
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question58:-Corneal curvature is measured by
 A:-Keratometry
 B:-A scan
 C:-Pachymetry
 D:-Specular microscopy
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question59:-If the visual acuity improves with pinhole, the cause of defective vision is
 A:-Cataract
 B:-Refractive error
 C:-Macular degeneration
 D:-Corneal opacity
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question60:-Which is true about aphakic glasses?
 A:-Image magnification of 80%
 B:-Best method to correct aphakia
 C:-Produces spherical aberrations causing pin cushion distortion
 D:-Wider field of vision
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question61:-Which of the following is not a contraindication for use of donor cornea?
 A:-Rabies
 B:-HIV
 C:-Myopia
 D:-Death from unknown cause
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question62:-On cover-uncover test, if there is inward movement of eye under cover, it indicates
 A:-Exophoria
 B:-Esophoria
 C:-Orthophoria
 D:-Esotropia
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question63:-In worth's four dot test, if the patient sees only two red lights, indicates
 A:-Diplopia
 B:-Abnormal retinal correspondence
 C:-Normal binocular vision
 D:-Left eye suppression
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question64:-In Schirmer's 1 test, if the wetting is between 5 and 10 mm, it indicates
 A:-Severe dry eye
 B:-Normal
 C:-Moderate dry eye
 D:-Mild dry eye
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question65:-Corneal thickness is measured by
 A:-Placidos disc
 B:-Pachymeter
 C:-A scan
 D:-90 D lens
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question66:-Mydriatic cycloplegic drug is indicated in which of the following condition?
 A:-Acute iridocyclitis
 B:-Acute conjunctivitis
 C:-Acute congestive glaucoma
 D:-Episcleritis
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question67:-Which of the following is an ocular emergency?
 A:-Cataract
 B:-Viral conjunctivitis
 C:-Open angle glaucoma
 D:-Acute congestive glaucoma
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question68:-Unit of measurement of convergence
 A:-Diopter
 B:-Metre angle
 C:-Millimeter
 D:-Degrees
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question69:-Snowflake cataract is seen in
 A:-Trauma
 B:-Steroid use
 C:-Hyperparathyroidism
 D:-Diabetes
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question70:-One predisposing factor for hordeolum externum
 A:-Hypertension
 B:-Uncorrected refractive error
 C:-Ptosis
 D:-Proptosis
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question71:-Vertex power of spectacle lens is measured by
 A:-Optical pachymeter
 B:-Specular microscope
 C:-Hruby lens
 D:-Lensometer
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question72:-All the following are features of Vitamin A deficiency EXCEPT
 A:-Night blindness
 B:-Bitots spots
 C:-Phlycten
 D:-Keratomalacia
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question73:-Keratometer is useful for all the following conditions EXCEPT
 A:-Measure the radius of curvature of anterior surface of cornea
 B:-IOL power calculation

 C:-Measurement of corneal astigmatic error
 D:-Measurement of corneal endothelial cell count
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question74:-Darkening of lens on exposure to UV rays in photochromic lenses is due to disintegration of
 A:-Aluminium phosphate
 B:-Silver Halide
 C:-Borosilicate
 D:-Polycarbonate
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question75:-Instrument used to assess peripheral retina
 A:-90 dioptre lens
 B:-Direct ophthalmoscope
 C:-Optical coherence tomograph
 D:-Indirect ophthalmoscopy
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question76:-All the following condition can cause coloured haloes EXCEPT
 A:-Cataract
 B:-Acute narrow angle glaucoma
 C:-Episcleritis
 D:-Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question77:-Instrument used to predict the visual acuity following cataract surgery
 A:-Potential acuity meter
 B:-Arden gratings
 C:-Pelli Robson chart
 D:-Vistech chart
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question78:-Commonest cause of bilateral proptosis
 A:-Orbital tumours
 B:-Orbital cellulitis
 C:-Thyroid ophthalmopathy
 D:-Orbital hemorrhage
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question79:-Which of the following is a feature of concave lens?
 A:-Object moves in the same direction as the lens
 B:-Object moves in the opposite direction of the lens
 C:-Object appears magnified
 D:-Distortion of image when lens is rotated
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question80:-Which of the following tonometry is not based on applanation?
 A:-Air puff tonometer
 B:-Schiotz tonometer
 C:-Tonopen
 D:-Noncontact tonometers
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question81:-Which dye is used for identifying corneal epithelial defect?
 A:-Indocyanine green
 B:-Fluorescein
 C:-Rose Bengal

 D:-Trypan Blue
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question82:-Which laser is used for treating after cataract?
 A:-Nd YAG laser
 B:-Argon laser
 C:-Diode laser
 D:-Ruby laser
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question83:-Roving ring scotoma is seen in
 A:-Pseudophakia
 B:-High myopia
 C:-Glaucoma
 D:-Aphakia corrected with spectacles
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question84:-SAFE (Surgery, Antibiotics, Face washing, Environment) strategy is for control of
 A:-Glaucoma
 B:-Dacryocystitis
 C:-Trachoma
 D:-Corneal ulcer
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question85:-All are used to check visual acuity in children EXCEPT
 A:-VEP
 B:-Perimetry
 C:-Cardiff acuity cards
 D:-Teller acuity cards
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question86:-All are features of concomitant squint EXCEPT
 A:-No diplopia
 B:-Primary deviation equals secondary deviation
 C:-Abnormal head posture
 D:-No restriction of ocular movements
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question87:-Amblyopia in children is most commonly caused by
 A:-Hypermetropia
 B:-Astigmatism
 C:-Myopia
 D:-Congenital cataract
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question88:-Most common organism causing corneal ulcer in contact lens wearers?
 A:-Pneumococci
 B:-Staphylococci
 C:-Fusarium
 D:-Pseudomonas
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question89:-Magnification obtained with a direct ophthalmoscope
 A:-10 times
 B:-20 times
 C:-5 times
 D:-15 times
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question90:-Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment is a complication associated with which refractive error?
 A:-Myopia
 B:-Hypermetropia
 C:-Astigmatism
 D:-Presbyopia
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question91:-Following are the target diseases identified for vision 2020 in India EXCEPT
 A:-Cataract
 B:-Onchocerciasis
 C:-Childhood blindness
 D:-Glaucoma
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question92:-Linen, dressings and metallic instruments are generally sterilized by
 A:-Autoclave
 B:-Hot-air oven
 C:-Ethylene oxide
 D:-Chemical sterilization
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question93:-The far point is beyond infinity or behind the eye in
 A:-Myopia
 B:-Astigmatism
 C:-Presbyopia
 D:-Hypermetropia
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question94:-Most common cause of low vision in children?
 A:-Cataract
 B:-Corneal opacity
 C:-Refractive error
 D:-Strabismus
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question95:-Which is not true of congenital esotropia?
 A:-Occurs before 6 months of age
 B:-Large angle of deviation
 C:-Associated with cross fixation
 D:-Associated with high hypermetropia
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question96:-The normal AC/A ratio perdiopter of accommodation is
 A:-6-10 prism diopters
 B:-3-5 prism diopters
 C:-1-2 prism diopters
 D:-12-15 prism diopters
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question97:-Which of the following conditions produce sudden loss of vision?
 A:-Central retinal artery occlusion
 B:-Primary open angle glaucoma
 C:-Cataract
 D:-Retinitis pigmentosa
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question98:-In which of the following conditions is topical steroids indicated?
 A:-Acute bacterial conjunctivitis
 B:-Allergic conjunctivitis
 C:-Corneal ulcer
 D:-Acute dacryocystitis
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question99:-Which of the following is not true about direct ophthalmoscopy?
 A:-Uniocular procedure
 B:-Image magnified 15 times
 C:-Image is real and inverted
 D:-Central fundus up to equator is seen
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question100:-Which is true about pseudopterygium?
 A:-Is a degenerative condition
 B:-Probe cannot be passed beneath it
 C:-Always stationary
 D:-Follows exposure to ultraviolet rays or dust
 Correct Answer:- Option-C


Question1:-Which of the following states of India has the longest coast line?
 A:-Andra Pradesh
 B:-Maharastra
 C:-Odisha
 D:-West Bengal
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question2:-The largest river in India
 A:-Yamuna
 B:-Brahmaputra
 C:-Ganga
 D:-Sindhu
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question3:-The first bullet train project of India connects
 A:-Mumbai-Pune
 B:-Ahmedabad-Mumbai
 C:-Delhi-Patna
 D:-Delhi-Amritsar
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question4:-Kerala State Law Reform Commission Chairman
 A:-Dr. N.K. Jayakumar
 B:-Sasidharan Nair
 C:-Adv. M.K. Damodaran
 D:-Justice K.T. Thomas
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question5:-Azad Hind Fauj was founded by
 A:-Rash Behari Bose
 B:-Subash Chandra Bose
 C:-Liaqat Ali
 D:-Maulana Azad
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question6:-Who was regarded as the father of Indian unrest?
 A:-Mahatma Gandhi
 B:-Subash Chandra Bose
 C:-Bal Gangadhar Tilak
 D:-Mohammed Ali Jinna
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question7:-Who is the newly elected Chief Minister of Goa?
 A:-Manohar Pareekar
 B:-Beeran Singh
 C:-Amareendar Singh
 D:-Trivendra Singh Ravath
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question8:-Who is the author of the Book 'India Wins Freedom'?
 A:-Indira Gandhi
 B:-Jawaharlal Nehru
 C:-Gopalakrishna Gokhale
 D:-Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question9:-Dr. Abdul Kalam island is situates in the coast of
 A:-West Bengal
 B:-Odisha
 C:-Gujarat
 D:-Tamilnadu
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question10:-The heroin of Quit India Movement
 A:-Sarojini Naidu
 B:-Beegam Hazrath Mahal
 C:-Aruna Asafali
 D:-Sujetha Kripalani
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question11:-Who is the second vice-chairman of NITI Aayog?
 A:-Dr. Rajiv Kumar
 B:-Aravind Panagaria
 C:-Dr. Bibek Debroy
 D:-Dr. Bimal Jalan
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question12:-Who was the leader of Paik Rebellion of 1817?
 A:-Rani Laksmibhai
 B:-Bakshi Jagabandhu
 C:-Asadulla Khan
 D:-Tanthiya Topi
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question13:-''Katora Kudaram'' a notable work of
 A:-Vikam Mohammed Basheer
 B:-Dr. C.K. Kareem
 C:-Makthi Thangal
 D:-Ali Musliar
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question14:-The leader of Ezhava Memorial of 1896
 A:-Ayyankali
 B:-Dr. Vasudev
 C:-K. Kelappan
 D:-Dr. Palpu
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question15:-The king who proclaimed Temple entry
 A:-Ayillyam Thirunnal
 B:-Swathi Thirunnal
 C:-Sremulam Thirunnal
 D:-Sree Chithira Thirunnal
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question16:-The Swach Bharath Abhiyan announced the cleanest city in India in 2017 is
 A:-Indore
 B:-Mysore
 C:-Mumbai
 D:-Chandigarh
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question17:-Oscar Award for the Best film for the year 2017
 A:-The Jungle Book
 B:-Moon Light
 C:-The Salesman
 D:-La La Land
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question18:-The founder of ''Sadhu Jana Paripalana Yogam''
 A:-Sree Narayana Guru
 B:-Vakkam Abdul Khadar Maulavi
 C:-Ayyankali
 D:-Sahodaran Ayyappan
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question19:-The first Governor of Reserve Bank of India
 A:-James Braid Taylor
 B:-Dr. Man Mohan Singh
 C:-Bimal Jalan
 D:-Osborne Smith
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question20:-Silent Valley National Park situates in the district of
 A:-Palakkad
 B:-Wynad
 C:-Edukki
 D:-Pathanamthitta
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Statistical Assistant/Statistical Investigator Exam Question with Answer

Question1:-Which of the following is used for International monetary transfer ?
 A:-SWIFT
 B:-NEFT
 C:-RTGS
 D:-None of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question2:-Among the following countries who initiated the scientific agriculture in Kerala ?
 A:-Portuguese
 B:-British
 C:-French
 D:-Dutch
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question3:-Who developed the 4Ps of marketing ?
 A:-Peter F Drucker
 B:-Hanson
 C:-McCarthy
 D:-Abraham Maslow
 Correct Answer:- Option-C


Question4:-When was Malayali Memorial submitted to the king ?
 A:-1890
 B:-1896
 C:-1891
 D:-1892
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question5:-'Samatva Samajam' probably the first social organization of Kerala was initiated by
 A:-Vagbhadananda
 B:-Vaikunda Swami
 C:-Chattambi Swami
 D:-Sree Narayana Guru
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question6:-Using two independent samples, two population means are compared to determine if a difference exists.The number in the sample is fifteen and the number in the second sample is twelve. How many degrees of freedom are associated with the critical value ?
 A:-24
 B:-25
 C:-26
 D:-27
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question7:-Who started 'Sadhujanaparipalana Yogam' ?
 A:-Chattambi Swami
 B:-Vaghbhatananda
 C:-Vaikunda Swami
 D:-Ayyankali
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question8:-Among the following who was the owner of the paper 'Swadeshabhimani' ?
 A:-K. Krishna Pillai
 B:-Makthi Thangal
 C:-Vaikom Abdul Khader Moulavi
 D:-Morkothu Kumaran
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question9:-The 1999 Kargil war also known as
 A:-Operation Vijay
 B:-Operation Viswas
 C:-Operation Sakti
 D:-Smiling Buddha
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question10:-The only licensed National Flag production unit in India
 A:-Pune
 B:-Hubli
 C:-Thane
 D:-Kanpur
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question11:-First Nationalized Bank in India is
 A:-RBI
 B:-Andhra Bank
 C:-SBI
 D:-IOB
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question12:-Who is the father of Indian Space Programme ?
 A:-APJ Abdul Kalam
 B:-Homi J. Bhaba
 C:-Salim Ali
 D:-Vikram Sarabhai
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question13:-Which friend of Raja Ram Mohan Roy helped him in the Brahmo Samaj Movement ?
 A:-Ishwar Chandra Vidya Sagar
 B:-Dwarakanath Tagore
 C:-Keshav Chandra Sen
 D:-Rabindranath Tagore
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question14:-When did Indian Constitution come into force ?
 A:-1949 November 26
 B:-1956 November 1
 C:-1947 August 15
 D:-1950 January 26
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question15:-Who was the first deputy Prime Minister of Independent India ?
 A:-Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
 B:-Lal Bahadur Sastri
 C:-Karan Singh
 D:-Morarji Desai
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question16:-How many members are nominated by the President of India to Rajya Sabha ?
 A:-8
 B:-15
 C:-12
 D:-16
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question17:-'Right to Education for children in India' did come in to force on
 A:-2011 April 1
 B:-2011 June 1
 C:-2010 April 1
 D:-2012 April 1
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question18:-Where did Indias `1^(st)` ATM install ?
 A:-Delhi
 B:-Pune
 C:-Calcutta
 D:-Mumbai
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question19:-Head quarters of Kerala Gramin Bank is situated at
 A:-Ernakulam
 B:-Malappuram
 C:-Kozhikode
 D:-Trivandrum
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question20:-Who is the `14^(th)` President of India ?
 A:-Pranab Mukherjee
 B:-Ram Nath Kovind
 C:-K. R. Narayanan
 D:-Pratibha Pateel
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question21:-Find the value of m if the function f(x) =`{(3 if - oo < x< 1),(mx + 5 if 1 <= x < oo):}` is continuous at x = 1.
 A:-8
 B:-2
 C:--2
 D:-3
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question22:-Which of the following real valued functions f : R `->` R is not differentiable at x = 0 ?
 A:-f(x) = 3
 B:-f(x) = |x|
 C:-f(x) = |x - 1|
 D:-f(x) = `e^(x)`
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question23:-If the complex function f is defined as f(z) = `(z)/(z-3)` find `int_(C)` f(z)dz if C is the circle
|z - 1| = 1.
 A:-0
 B:-2`pi`i
 C:-3
 D:-1
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question24:-Which of the following is not a solution of the differential equation y" - 5y' + 6y = 0 ?
 A:-`e^(2x)`
 B:-`e^(x)`
 C:-0
 D:-`2e^(2x) + e^(3x)`
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question25:-In which of the following intervals is the function f(x) = `2x^(3) - 3x^(2) + 2` is increasing ?
 A:-(-`oo` , 1)
 B:-(0, 1)
 C:-(`(1)/(2)`, 2)
 D:-(2, 3)
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question26:-How many generators are there for the cyclic group `Z_(4)` ?
 A:-1
 B:-2
 C:-3
 D:-4
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question27:-Find the value of `lim_(x->oo)` `(4x^(2)-5x+4)/(2x^(2)+x-2)`.
 A:-`oo`
 B:-0
 C:--2
 D:-2
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question28:-If the function f is continuous and `int^(2)_1`f(x)dx = 3 and `int^(4)_1` f(x)dx = 7 then the value of
`int^(4)_2` f(x)dx =
 A:-4
 B:--4
 C:-10
 D:--10
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question29:-Which of the following is not an eigen value of the matrix
`[[2 1 3],[0 1 0], [0 1 4]]` ?
 A:-1
 B:-2
 C:-3
 D:-4
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question30:-Hortus Malabaricus was published under the patronage of
 A:-H. L . Vizher
 B:-Admiral Vanreed
 C:-Admiral Vandermain
 D:-Admiral Wangoons
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question31:-The smallest number with 15 divisors is
 A:-5625
 B:-324
 C:-144
 D:-2025
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question32:-The remainder when `2^(1000)` is divided by 17 is
 A:-1
 B:-3
 C:-7
 D:-16
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question33:-If `alpha` , `beta` d `gamma` are the roots of the `x^(3)+px^(2)+qx+r=0`
 then the value of `alpha^(2)+beta^2` `+ gamma^(2) =` ` `
 A:-`p^(2)-2q`
 B:-`p^(2)+2q`
 C:-`-p^(2)+2q`
 D:-`-p^(2)-2q`
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question34:-Which of the following pairs of vectors are perpendicular to each other ?
 A:-3i + 4j - 5k and 4i + 3j + 2k
 B:-2i + 3j - k and 3i + 2j + k
 C:-2i - 3j + k and 2i + 3j + k
 D:-4i + 3j - 2k and i + 4j + 8k
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question35:-` int^((pi)/(2)` `cos^(4)` x dx =
 ` _0`
 A:-`(pi)/(4)`
 B:-`(pi^(2))/(16)`
 C:-`(3pi^(2))/(16)`
 D:-`(3pi^)/(16)`
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question36:-If tan A = `(1)/(5)` and tan B = `(2)/(3), ` then A + B =
 A:-` `30°
 B:-60°
 C:-90°
 D:-45°
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question37:-If `((n),(3))` = `((n),(15))`, then n =
 A:-12
 B:-18
 C:-5
 D:-None of these
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question38:-The local maximum point of the function f(x) = `x^(3)-3x^(2)-9x+4` is at
 A:-x = 1
 B:-x = -3
 C:-x = -1
 D:-x = 3
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question39:-Which of the following is true about the real function f(x) = [x], -5 `<=` x `<=` 5 ?
 A:-f(x) is a continuous function
 B:-lim f(x) exist at x = 0
 C:-f(x) has only finitely many discontinuities
 D:-f(x) has infinitely many discontinuities
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question40:-The period of the function f(x) = sin 2x is
 A:-`pi`
 B:-`(pi)/(2)`
 C:-`(pi)/(4)`
 D:-`2pi`
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question41:-The absolute value of the cross elasticity of demand of two goods X and Y are zero, then the goods are
 A:-Substitutes
 B:-Complementary
 C:-Independent
 D:-None of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question42:-Which one of the following is a measure of monopoly power of the firm ?
 A:-Lerner Index
 B:-Fisher Index
 C:-Herfindahl Index
 D:-Human Development Index
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question43:-The absolute value of the slope of the isoquant is called
 A:-Marginal rate of substitution
 B:-Marginal rate of productivity
 C:-Marginal rate of product transformation
 D:-Marginal rate of technical substitution
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question44:-Which of the following degree of price discrimination is a case of charging a different price in different markets
? A:-First degree
 B:-Second degree
 C:-Third degree
 D:-Fourth degree
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question45:-If Z represents the set of all integers and +,. represents usual addition and multiplication of integers
respectively, which of the following is not a group ?
 A:-(Z, +)
 B:-(Z, .)
 C:-(Z - {0}, .)
 D:-None of these
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question46:-The interest rate is determined by the intersection between the supply of loanable funds and the demand for
loanable funds is given by
 A:-Keynes
 B:-Keynesians
 C:-Neoclassicals
 D:-Post keynesians
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question47:-The purchasing power parity theory is associated with
 A:-W. W. Leonitief
 B:-Gustav cassel
 C:-J. B. Say
 D:-Alexander Hamilton
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question48:-The long run supply curve of a decreasing cost industry under perfect competition is
 A:-Horizontal
 B:-Vetical
 C:-Positively sloped
 D:-Negatively sloped
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question49:-The book 'Development as Freedom' is written by
 A:-Jagdish Bhagwati
 B:-Amartya Sen
 C:-Vakil and Brahmananda
 D:-C. Rangarajan
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question50:-The 'ratchet' effect is related to which of the following consumption hypothesis
 A:-Permanant income hypothesis
 B:-Life cycle hypothesis
 C:-Relative income hypothesis
 D:-Absolute income hypothesis
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question51:-Economic values expressed in current prices are termed as
 A:-Real values
 B:-Nominal values
 C:-Deflator
 D:-Constant price
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question52:-Gilt-edged market deals with
 A:-Currency notes
 B:-Gold
 C:-Silver
 D:-Govt. securities
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question53:-Which one of the following are the cost of inflation ?
 A:-Menu costs
 B:-Shoe leather costs
 C:-Reduction in standard of living
 D:-All the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question54:-The ratio of the change in the overall money supply to a given change in the monetary base is called
 A:-Money multiplier
 B:-Required reserve ratio
 C:-Deposit ratio
 D:-Income multiplier
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question55:-If the accommodating capital is zero in the balance of payments of a country, there will be
 A:-Deficit in the balance of payments
 B:-Surplus in the balance of payment
 C:-Equilibrium in the balance of payments
 D:-Disequilibrium in the balance of payments
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question56:-The rate at which RBI borrows from commercial banks is called
 A:-Call money rate
 B:-Bank rate
 C:-Repo rate
 D:-Reverse Repo rate
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question57:-Equal treated equally in taxation leads to
 A:-Vertical equity
 B:-Horizontal equity
 C:-Real equity
 D:-None of these
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question58:-Which one of the following is not a part of outside money ?
 A:-Bank deposit
 B:-Currency incirculation
 C:-Gold
 D:-Foreign exchange
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question59:-Which of the following is the condition of shut down point of a firm ?
 A:-Price equals average total cost
 B:-Price equals average variable cost
 C:-Price equals average fixed cost
 D:-Total cost equals total revenue
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question60:-The law of increasing state activity was propounded by
 A:-Adolf Wagner
 B:-Musgrave
 C:-Collin Clark
 D:-Keynes
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question61:-Which principle has important bearing on the capital revenue classification ?
 A:-Principle of consistency
 B:-Principle of full disclosure
 C:-Principle of materiality
 D:-Principle of conservatism
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question62:-NITI Aayog is a replacement of
 A:-Planning Commission
 B:-Finance Commission
 C:-Social Justice Commission
 D:-Poverty Eradication Commission
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question63:-The year in which Trippadidanam was carried out by marthanda Varma in
 A:-1750
 B:-1729
 C:-1734
 D:-1733
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question64:-Assets appearing in the books but not having any real value are known as
 A:-Fictitious assets
 B:-Intangible assets
 C:-Wasting assets
 D:-All the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question65:-Employee morale relates to
 A:-Experience
 B:-Productivity
 C:-Empathy
 D:-Attitude
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question66:-Which of the following documents defines the scope of the company's activities ?
 A:-Articles of association
 B:-Memorandum of association
 C:-Prospectus
 D:-Statutory declaration
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question67:-Nair Service Society was established in the year
 A:-1914
 B:-1944
 C:-1924
 D:-1934
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question68:-The first mutual fund scheme in India was introduced by
 A:-Government of India
 B:-Reserve Bank of India
 C:-Unit Trust of India
 D:-State Bank of India
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question69:-"Student" word may be used for
 A:-t-test
 B:-Z-test
 C:-F-test
 D:-None of these
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question70:-A plan expressed in quantitative terms is known as
 A:-Strategy
 B:-Policy
 C:-Procedure
 D:-Budget
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question71:-For all normal goods, income elasticity of demand is
 A:-Negative
 B:-Equal to unity
 C:-Positive
 D:-None of the abve
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question72:-Goods withdrawn by the proprietor for his personal use are
 A:-Added to purchases
 B:-Deducted from purchases
 C:-Deducted from sales
 D:-Treated as sales at cost price
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question73:-TQM's major emphasis is on
 A:-Company profitability
 B:-Customer delight
 C:-Product quality
 D:-Employee training
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question74:-Which of the following items is not taken into account while computing quick ratio ?
 A:-Cash
 B:-Bank overdraft
 C:-Bank balance
 D:-Sundry creditors
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question75:-Civil liability of a company auditor is for
 A:-Negligence
 B:-Wilfully making a false statement
 C:-Mis-statement in prospectus
 D:-All of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question76:-Pareto's law is concerned with
 A:-JIT system
 B:-FSN analysis
 C:-VED analysis
 D:-ABC analysis
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question77:-A company can purchase its own
 A:-Equity shares
 B:-Preference shares
 C:-Debentures
 D:-All the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question78:-360 degree method relates to
 A:-Organization climate
 B:-Performance appraisal
 C:-Employee morale
 D:-Retrenchment
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question79:-Which of the following is not a capital asset under capital gains head of income ?
 A:-Stock in trade
 B:-Goodwill of the business
 C:-Agricultural land in Thiruvananthapuram city
 D:-Jewellery
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question80:-Garner vs Murray relates to
 A:-Deficiency
 B:-Insolvency
 C:-Contract
 D:-Hire purchase
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question81:-Independent events A and B would be consistent with which of the following statements
 A:-P(A) = .3, P(B) = .5, P(A ` nn` B) = .4
 B:-P(A) = .4, P(B) = .5, P(A ` nn` B) = .2
 C:-P(A) = .5, P(B) = .4, P(A ` nn` B) = .3
 D:-P(A) = .4, P(B) = .3, P(A ` nn` B) = .5
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question82:-If each of two independent file servers has a reliability of 93% and either alone can run the web site, then the
overall web site availability is
 A:-0.9951
 B:-0.8649
 C:-0.9300
 D:-0.9522
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question83:-A major airline company is concerned that its proportion of late arrivals has substantially increased in the past
month. Historical data shows that on the average 18% of the company airplanes have arrived late. In a random sample of
1240 airplanes, 310 airplanes have arrived late. If we are conducting a hypothesis test of a single proportion to determine if
the proportion of late arrivals has increased. What is the value of the calculated test statistic ?
 A:-3.208
 B:-6.416
 C:--3.208
 D:--6.416
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question84:-Packing cost is an item of
 A:-Distribution overhead
 B:-Factory overhead
 C:-Administrative overhead
 D:-Selling overhead
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question85:-A type I error occurs when we
 A:-Reject a false null hypothesis
 B:-Reject a true null hypothesis
 C:-Don't reject a false null hypothesis
 D:-Don't reject a true null hypothesis
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question86:-We have created a 95% confidence interval population mean for with the result (8, 13).
What conclusion will we make if we test `H_(0)` : population mean = 15 vs. `H_(1)` : population mean `!=` 15 at alpha =
0.05 ?
 A:-Reject `H_(0)` in favor of `H_(1)`
 B:-Accept `H_(0)` in favor of `H_(1)`
 C:-Fail to reject `H_(0)` in favor of `H_(1)`
 D:-We cannot tell what our decision will be from the information given.
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question87:-Given the correlation coefficient measuring the association between X and Y is 0.70, what can you say about
the coefficient of determination ?
 A:-0.49
 B:-0.70
 C:-0.90
 D:-Cannot be determined
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question88:-According to a survey of the top 10 employers in a major city in the Midwest, a worker spends an average of
413 minutes a day on the job. Suppose the standard deviation is 25 minutes and the time spent is approximately a normal
distribution. What are the times that approximately 95.45% of all workers will fall ?
 A:-[388 438]
 B:-[338 488]
 C:-[363 463]
 D:-[338 438]
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question89:-When using the normal distribution to obtain the bounds for a 99.73 percent of the values in a population, the
interval generally will be __________ the interval obtained for the same percentage if Chebyshev's theorem is assumed
(empirical rule).
 A:-Wider than
 B:-Narrower than
 C:-The same as
 D:-Greater than or less than (depending on the size of the SD)
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question90:-Suppose a package delivery company purchased 14 trucks at the same time. Five trucks were purchased from manufacturer A, four from B and five from manufacturer C. The cost of maintaining each truck was recorded. The company used ANOVA to test if the mean maintenance cost of the trucks from each manufacturer were equal. To apply the F test, how many degrees of freedom are in the denominator ?
 A:-2
 B:-3
 C:-11
 D:-14
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question91:-The owner of a fish market has an assistant who has determined that the weights of catfish are normally
distributed, with a mean of 3.2 pounds and standard deviation of 0.84 pounds. If a sample of 16 fish is taken, what would
the standard error of the mean weight equal ?
 A:-0.200
 B:-0.053
 C:-0.210
 D:-0.800
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question92:-A regression equation was computed to be Y = 35 + 6X. The value of the 35 indicates that
 A:-A regression line crosses the Y axis at 35
 B:-The coefficient of correlation is 35
 C:-The coefficient of determination is 35
 D:-An increase of one unit of X will result in an increase of 35 in Y
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question93:-Until this year the mean braking distance of a Nikton automobile moving at 60 miles per hour was 175 feet.
Nikton engineers have developed what they consider a better braking system. They test the new brake system on a random
sample of 64 cars and determine the sample mean braking distance x = 167 feet (assume the population standard
deviation is known to be 32 feet). How many cars should be tested if Nikton wants to be 95% confident of being within 1
foot of the population mean braking distance ?
 A:-4194
 B:-3934
 C:-3216
 D:-3016
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question94:-When carrying out a large sample test of `H_(0)` : `mu` 10 vs. `H_(a)` : `mu` ``> 10 by using a critical value,
we reject `H_(0)` at level of significance `alpha` when the calculated test statistic is
 A:-Less than `z_(alpha)`
 B:-Less than `-z_(alpha)`
 C:-Greater than `z_(alpha/2)` ``
 D:-Greater than `z_(alpha)`
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question95:-If the standard deviation of a set of scores is 7.5, what would the value of the standard deviation become if 5
points were added to every score in the set ?
 A:-37.5
 B:-12.5
 C:-Cannot be determined without further information
 D:-Stay the same
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question96:-The distribution of salaries for most business is known to be skewed to the right or positively skewed. Which of the following would be the BEST measure to determine the location of the center of the distribution ?
 A:-Variance
 B:-Median
 C:-Mode
 D:-Mean
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question97:-The chi-square distribution can assume
 A:-Only positive values
 B:-Only negative values
 C:-Negative and positive values or zero
 D:-Only zero
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question98:-To determine if a diet supplement is useful for increasing weight, patients are weighed at the start of the
program and at the end of the program. This is an example of a(n)
 A:-Test of paired differences
 B:-Independent sample
 C:-One-sample test for means
 D:-Two-sample test for means
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question99:-Suppose we are testing the difference between two proportions at the 0.05 level of significance. If the
computed Z is -1.07, what is our decision ?
 A:-Reject the null hypothesis
 B:-Do not reject the null hypothesis
 C:-Take a larger sample
 D:-Reserve judgement
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question100:-According to a recent survey approximately 25% of all college students work full time (that is, there is 0.25 probability for any given student to work full time). If the random variable X represents the number of students who work full time in samples of size 10, what is the expected value of X ?
 A:-2.0
 B:-2.5
 C:-3.0
 D:-More information is needed
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

GK QUESTIONS USED IN RECRUITMENT EXAM

 Question1:-It is used to draft garment design and cut to part of the garment patterns
 A:-Pattern square
 B:-Tailors square
 C:-Pattern scissors
 D:-Brown sheet
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question2:-The first disciple of Mahavira is
 A:-Priyadarsana
 B:-Makhali Gosala
 C:-Jamali
 D:-None of these
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question3:-The central agricultural university is located at
 A:-New Delhi
 B:-Nagpur
 C:-Imphal
 D:-Shillong
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question4:-Which river is known as the lifetime of Maharashtra?
 A:-Narmada
 B:-Koyna
 C:-Kukadi
 D:-Tapti
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question5:-The 'Baredi dance' is a folk dance popular among the Adheer community of
 A:-Maharashtra
 B:-Bihar
 C:-Missoram
 D:-Madhya Pradesh
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question6:-'Yeravada Jail' is in
 A:-Uttar Pradesh
 B:-Central Province
 C:-Poona
 D:-Culcutta
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question7:-'Independent' was the publication of
 A:-Motilal Nehru
 B:-Sarojini Naidu
 C:-Bipin Chandra Pal
 D:-Lala Hardayal
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question8:-Who is known as the 'Asoka of South India'?
 A:-Pulikeshi II
 B:-Rajendra Chola
 C:-Amogha Varsha
 D:-Narasimha Varma II
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question9:-'Mughal Gardens' is near
 A:-Vijaya Ghat
 B:-Rashtrapathi Bhavan
 C:-Red Fort
 D:-Qutb Minar
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question10:-'Milhavadi's first editor was
 A:-G.P. Pillai
 B:-C. Krishnan
 C:-T. Sivasankaran
 D:-Moorkkothu Kumaran
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question11:-'Vaikunta Swamikal' claimed himself as the incarnation of
 A:-Vishnu
 B:-Siva
 C:-Rama
 D:-Krishna
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question12:-Out of the following which is not a work of Brahmananda Sivayogi?
 A:-Aananda Vimanam
 B:-Aananda Darsanam
 C:-Moksha Pradeepam
 D:-Aananda bhasha
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question13:-Sreenarayana Guru established Thiruppatheeswara temple at
 A:-Thalasseri
 B:-Mangalapuram (Mangalore)
 C:-Kanjani
 D:-Murukkumpuzha
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question14:-'Ezhava Memorial' was submitted to the Maharaja on
 A:-1896 September 3
 B:-1896 September 13
 C:-1891 September 8
 D:-1896 October 13
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question15:-Who was known as 'Shanmughadasan'?
 A:-Kumara Guru
 B:-Chattampi Swamikal
 C:-Ayyankali
 D:-Brahmananda Sivayogi
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question16:-Rama bai was the name of the wife of
 A:-Ambedkar
 B:-Lajpath Rai
 C:-Vallabh Bhai Patel
 D:-V.P. Singh
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question17:-The first International Solar Alliance (ISA) summit was held at
 A:-Tokyo
 B:-Islamabad
 C:-Beijing
 D:-New Delhi
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question18:-Which ocean has the longest coastline?
 A:-Atlantic
 B:-Indian Ocean
 C:-Pacific
 D:-Arctic
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question19:-Which is the scheme meant for the empowerment of adolescent girls in India?
 A:-SAKSHAM
 B:-Sakhi
 C:-Swadhar
 D:-SABLA
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question20:-Which country has won the 12th ICC under-19 Cricket World Cup?
 A:-Australia
 B:-India
 C:-New Zealand
 D:-England
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question21:-What is/are used for correct fitting?
 A:-Fashion
 B:-Construction
 C:-Measurement
 D:-Pattern making
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question22:-It should not have any design and style line
 A:-Block pattern
 B:-Graded pattern
 C:-Tested pattern
 D:-Working pattern
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question23:-_______ is called the outline of the whole garment.
 A:-Texture
 B:-Silhoutte
 C:-Style
 D:-Design
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question24:-Examples of vertical measurements
 A:-Across back
 B:-Waist round
 C:-Hip girth
 D:-Crotch depth
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question25:-It shows the placement of components in an economic way?
 A:-Layout
 B:-Outline
 C:-Pick lay
 D:-Stepped lay
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question26:-Which tool is used for pattern manipulation?
 A:-Ball pin
 B:-Push pin
 C:-Eye pin
 D:-Safety pin
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question27:-In the Kerala State Film Awards 2017, announced in 2018 the award for best singer goes to
 A:-Vijay Yesudas
 B:-Bijibal
 C:-Shahabas Aman
 D:-KK
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question28:-Notch mark used to identify
 A:-Design details
 B:-Grading details
 C:-Construction details
 D:-Pattern details
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question29:-Flat pattern making is a
 A:-Weaving process
 B:-Knitting process
 C:-Design process
 D:-Colour process
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question30:-Straight grain is parallel to
 A:-Bias
 B:-Width
 C:-Sleeve edge
 D:-Yarn
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question31:-Variation of the dart excess is called ___________.
 A:-Dart point
 B:-Dart equivalent
 C:-Dart leg
 D:-Apex
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question32:-Pivotal transfer technique is related to
 A:-Gathering
 B:-Gauging
 C:-Shirring
 D:-Manipulating
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question33:-___________ is a technique used to reproduce a pattern in other sizes.
 A:-Pattern grading
 B:-Pattern making
 C:-Pattern changing
 D:-Pattern drafting
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question34:-It can be designed to fit for the arm hole of a garment
 A:-Sloper
 B:-Sleeve
 C:-Seam
 D:-Shape
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question35:-HBL means
 A:-Horizontal balance line
 B:-Horizontal balance length
 C:-Horizontal back length
 D:-Height balance line
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question36:-The type of patterns drafted using an individual measurements are called
 A:-Basic pattern
 B:-Design pattern
 C:-Personal pattern
 D:-Production pattern
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question37:-It gives more comfort at the arm hole
 A:-Placket
 B:-Pleat
 C:-Gusset
 D:-Gathering
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question38:-Which is used for placement of stylelines on a dummy form?
 A:-Black twill tape
 B:-White twill tip
 C:-Measuring tape
 D:-Metal tape
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question39:-Which among the following a unisex garment?
 A:-Frock
 B:-Churidar
 C:-Gown
 D:-Kamees
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question40:-The margin which remains in its width for loosening the garment
 A:-Layout
 B:-Laying
 C:-Fraying
 D:-In lays
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question41:-The length and width of a fabric is called _________.
 A:-Grain
 B:-Gauge
 C:-Wrap
 D:-Weft
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question42:-Drawing sketch of a garment by actual size
 A:-Draping
 B:-Laying
 C:-Designing
 D:-Drafting
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question43:-When does the opening is overlapped?
 A:-Slit
 B:-Welt
 C:-Vent
 D:-None of these
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question44:-Peter pan is a variation of __________ collar.
 A:-Tennis
 B:-Flat
 C:-Stand
 D:-Mandarian
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question45:-What is the approximate width of single width fabric?
 A:-110 cm
 B:-112 cm
 C:-92 cm
 D:-132 cm
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question46:-The cotton material after going through a chemical process become more lustrous
 A:-Mercerised
 B:-Shrinking
 C:-Sizing
 D:-Dyeing
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question47:-Measure on nape to waist
 A:-Full length
 B:-Natural waist
 C:-Waist level
 D:-Waist round
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question48:-__________ is also called as ''L'' - square.
 A:-Set square
 B:-Pattern square
 C:-French square
 D:-Tailors square
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question49:-__________ is used pattern marks on cloth.
 A:-Tailors harm
 B:-Tailors square
 C:-Tailors shears
 D:-Tailors chalk
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question50:-After the spreading
 A:-Pattern making
 B:-Pattern layout
 C:-Pattern drafting
 D:-Pattern cutting
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question51:-Which machine used for top stitching?
 A:-Zig Zag
 B:-Bartack
 C:-Double needle
 D:-Chain stitch
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question52:-Woven fabrics are produced by the ____________ of yarns.
 A:-Inter looping
 B:-Over looping
 C:-Over locking
 D:-Inter lacing
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question53:-The diagonal joining of two edges at the corner is called
 A:-Mitring
 B:-Banding
 C:-Binding
 D:-Mending
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question54:-Suitable fabrics are used in draping techniques
 A:-Velvet
 B:-Nylon
 C:-Muslin
 D:-Khaki
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question55:-The marked patterns layout on fabric is known as ____________.
 A:-Pattern chart
 B:-Pattern grading
 C:-Marker
 D:-Marking
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question56:-Grain line will indicate the direction
 A:-Weft yarn
 B:-Warp yarn
 C:-Bias yarn
 D:-Width yarn
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question57:-_____________ can be defined as a model of various component of a garment.
 A:-Design
 B:-Sketch
 C:-Style
 D:-Pattern
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question58:-Select the sleeve with lower edge flare
 A:-Bell sleeve
 B:-Plain sleeve
 C:-Kimono sleeve
 D:-Cape sleeve
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question59:-Fusing means
 A:-Melting
 B:-Seaming
 C:-Darning
 D:-Trimming
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question60:-_____________ is the distance from waist to base of crotch of the figure.
 A:-Crotch point
 B:-Crotch depth
 C:-Crotch level
 D:-Crotch extention
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question61:-Finished opening in a garment is called
 A:-Pleat
 B:-Placket
 C:-Pocket
 D:-Panel
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question62:-Select an odd one
 A:-Bobbin thread
 B:-Bobbin winder
 C:-Thread guide
 D:-Thread take up lever
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question63:-Repairing method of a garment is called
 A:-Sizing
 B:-Bleaching
 C:-Trimming
 D:-Mending
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question64:-Which one has the main purpose of decorative work?
 A:-Hems
 B:-Darts
 C:-Tucks
 D:-Plackets
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question65:-Why the thread breaks immediately?
 A:-Poor thread
 B:-Needle is fixed much lower
 C:-Small needle
 D:-The wheel is turned in the wrong direction
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question66:-Select a pressing tool
 A:-Sleeve crown
 B:-Sleeve board
 C:-Sleeve cutter
 D:-None of these
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question67:-A small 1/8 inch hole is done with ___________.
 A:-Awll
 B:-Notcher
 C:-Scissors
 D:-Shears
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question68:-In which of the following machines lower and upper knives are used?
 A:-Chain stitch machine
 B:-Lock stitch machine
 C:-Over lock machine
 D:-Flat lock machine
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question69:-The width of material before pleating is called _______________.
 A:-Pleat width
 B:-Pleat depth
 C:-Pattern size
 D:-Pattern width
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question70:-Which among the following is not a seam finish?
 A:-Gathering
 B:-Pinking
 C:-Over locking
 D:-Over casting
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question71:-Another name of needle plate ________.
 A:-Face plate
 B:-Side plate
 C:-Throat plate
 D:-Slide plate
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question72:-Which is the line that commonly curves from the armhole down to the waist line through bust point?
 A:-Yoke line
 B:-Princess line
 C:-Chest line
 D:-Waist line
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question73:-The process of arranging the fabric one layer above the other layer for mass production is known as __________.
 A:-Grading
 B:-Marking
 C:-Trimming
 D:-Spreading
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question74:-Select a pant derivation
 A:-Ballerina
 B:-Jacket
 C:-Jamaica
 D:-None of these
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question75:-The right side of the fabric
 A:-Bright
 B:-Grain
 C:-Pile
 D:-Face
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question76:-What is used in between original cloth and lining for giving shape to the garment?
 A:-Interlining
 B:-Lining
 C:-Dart
 D:-Curves
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question77:-To fasten the button/zip left sided of opening
 A:-Fly catch
 B:-Fly
 C:-Facing
 D:-Binding
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question78:-The conversion of fabric in to garment
 A:-Turning up
 B:-Making up
 C:-Slot
 D:-Mass production
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question79:-Identify the fastenings
 A:-Velcro
 B:-Tag
 C:-Vent
 D:-Teak
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question80:-__________ is a narrow strip of cloth used in finishing the mouth of the cut pocket.
 A:-Fusing
 B:-Bridle
 C:-Welt
 D:-Godet
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question81:-The following one is a draping technique
 A:-Slash and spread
 B:-Pivotal
 C:-Adaptation
 D:-Blocking
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question82:-Basic pattern set is a ____________ piece pattern.
 A:-Three
 B:-Four
 C:-Five
 D:-Two
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question83:-The method of manipulating a block pattern into its basic style
 A:-Pivoting
 B:-Adaptation
 C:-Designing
 D:-Modeling
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question84:-What is the expansion of AAMA?
 A:-American Apparels Manufactures Association
 B:-American Apparels Marketing Academy
 C:-American Apparels Manufacturing Academy
 D:-American Apparels Marketing Authority
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question85:-The design variation of a garment is called
 A:-Fashion
 B:-Pattern
 C:-Model
 D:-Style
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question86:-The basic pattern may be modified for varied styles, this technique is called
 A:-Flat pattern designing
 B:-Pattern designing
 C:-Style designing
 D:-Pattern techniques
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question87:-In order to stitch fast on sewing machines __________ is pressed faster.
 A:-Hand wheel
 B:-Take up lever
 C:-Foot pedal
 D:-Power switch
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question88:-The bias strip that turned completely known as _________.
 A:-Binding
 B:-Facing
 C:-Piping
 D:-Banding
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question89:-Which one is protect your fingers from needle?
 A:-Stiletto
 B:-Bodkin
 C:-Thimble
 D:-Needle bar
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question90:-__________ helps to move the cloths while stitching.
 A:-Stitch regulator
 B:-Feed dog
 C:-Treadle
 D:-Bobbin winder
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question91:-Which among the following is an ornamental elements used on garments?
 A:-Trimmings
 B:-Colouring
 C:-Darning
 D:-Shirrings
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question92:-__________ are created as one of the last steps in stitching garments.
 A:-Plackets
 B:-Button holes
 C:-Pleats
 D:-Darts
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question93:-Which is the variation of half dart?
 A:-Contour dart
 B:-Standard dart
 C:-Slash dart
 D:-French dart
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question94:-A wedge-shape cut out in a pattern to control the fit of a garment
 A:-Dart length
 B:-Dart legs
 C:-Dart point
 D:-Dart pattern
 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question95:-Widest part of the sleeve dividing the cap from lower sleeve?
 A:-Biceps level
 B:-Sleeve level
 C:-Wrist level
 D:-Elbow level
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question96:-The fold over at the collar stand
 A:-Roll line
 B:-Collar edge
 C:-Collar design
 D:-Fold line
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question97:-__________ are excellent finishing seams to prevent fray of fabric edges.
 A:-Tailors shears
 B:-Pinking shears
 C:-Paper shears
 D:-Button hole shears
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question98:-The measuring tape is usually about ___________ cm long.
 A:-154
 B:-148
 C:-152
 D:-160

 Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question99:-The another name of palm scissors
 A:-Hole maker
 B:-Seam ripper
 C:-Thread lever
 D:-Thread trimmer
 Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question100:-It is used when both upper and lower garment are bulky
 A:-Curved seam
 B:-Corded seam
 C:-Flanel seam
 D:-Plain seam
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

GK Questions Published on 03/05/2018

Question No.1 . Consider the following statements regarding gravitational waves :
A. Gravitational waves are small ripples in the curvature of spacetime that are believed to travel across the
Universe at a speed higher than the speed of light.
B. They were predicted to exist by Albert Einstein in 1916 on the basis of his Theory of General Relativity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) Both A and B
(4) Neither A nor B

Question No.2. In view of the financial difficulties faced by the country, the Union Government of India headed by Chandra Shekhar had to pledge gold to get funds to tide over India’s Balance of Payments (BoP) problems. The Reserve Bank of India then transferred gold to which of the following ?
(1) Goldman Sachs Group
(2) Bank of America
(3) Bank of England
(4) Central Bank of Russia

Question No.3. Who is the writer of Sangeetha
Choodamani ?
(1) Queen Chandralekha
(2) Jagadekamalla II
(3) Nayasena
(4) Someshwar III


Question No.4. Which of the following are correct regarding the effects of National Emergency ?
(1) Effect on the fundamental rights
(2) Effect on the Centre-State relations
(3) Effect on the life of Lok Sabha and
State Assembly
(4) Effect on Right to Life and Personal
Liberty

Question No.5. Among all the Population Census of India, there was only one census which depicted an observed decrease in population compared to the previous census. Which year’s census showed this unexpected result ?
(1) 1921
(2) 1931
(3) 1941
(4) 1951

GK Questions Feb 2017

Question No. 1. How many triangles are there in the given figure ?
(1) 16
(2) 13
(3) 11
(4) 15

Question No. 2. Consider the following statements :
A. Kwashiorkor is a disorder of children due to protein/essential acid deficiency.
B. AIDS can be transferred from mother to child though placenta.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) Both A and B
(4) Neither A nor B
Question No. 3. Find the value of X in the following question :
(1) X = 5
(2) X = 6
(3) X = 8
(4) X = 9
Question No. 4. Purnaiah reorganised the administration under the following heads :
A. Treasury and Finance
B. Education
C. Military establishment including Kandachar or police
D. Revenue
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A, C and D only
(2) B only
(3) A and B only

(4) B and D only

Question No. 5. Kedareshwara temple at Halebidu and Amruteshwara temple at Chikamagalur
were built during the period of
(1) Veera Ballala II
(2) Veera Ballala III
(3) Narasimha II
(4) Rajaraja III
Question No. 6. Match the works of the poet/writers (List I) with the name of the poet/writers
(List II) whose creation it is
 List I List II
A. Natyashastra I. Somadeva
B. Kathasaritsagara II. Bharata
C. Harshcharita III. Sandhyakar
Nandi
D. Ramcharita IV. Banabhatta
E. Buddhacharita V. Asvaghosh
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
A B C D E
(1) I II III V IV
(2) II I IV III V
(3) II I V IV III
(4) I V II III IV
Question No. 7. India and which country will jointly issue postage stamps with Diwali as the theme ?
(1) Bhutan
(2) Indonesia
(3) Canada
(4) Sri Lanka

Question No. 8. Three statements have been given followed by four conclusions. You have to consider the statements to be true, even if they do not conform to the well-known facts. Which conclusion/s logically follow(s) from the given statements ?
Statements :
I. Some Buses are Tempos.
II. Some Tempos are Cars.
III All Cars are Scooters.
Conclusions :
A. Some Tempos are Buses.
B. Some Buses are Scooters.
C. All Buses are Cars.
Select the code for the correct answer
from the options given below :
(1) Only A follows
(2) Only B follows
(3) Only B and C follow
(4) All A, B and C follow
Question No. 9. In a class of 60 students, the number of boys and girls participating in the annual sports is in the ratio 3 : 2 respectively. The number of girls not participating in the sports is 5 more than the number of boys not participating in the sports. If the number of boys participating in the sports
is 15, then how many girls are there in the class ?
(1) 20
(2) 25
(3) 30
(4) 40

Question No. 10. Rohan put 9 cards on a table, some face up and the rest face down. How many were put face down ?
A. Rohan put an even number of the cards face up.
B. Rohan put twice as many of the cards face up as he put face down.
Select the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Statements A and B are not sufficient to answer the question asked and additional data is needed
to answer the question.
(2) Statement B alone is sufficient but statement A alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
(3) Both statements A and B together are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement is sufficient alone.
(4) Statement A alone is sufficient but statement B alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.

GLOBAL WARMING QUESTION ANSWERS

1. In addition to their role in ozone depletion, CFCs play a role in global warming by

  1. absorbing solar radiation
  2. absorbing earthshine in the 10 micron region
  3. blocking ultraviolet-B radiation
  4. destroying ozone, which cools the Earth
Answers available at the bottom


2. Ozonospere is mainly depleted by

  1. excess CO

  2. CFCs
  3. excess CO2
  4. ozone
Answers available at the bottom


3. Excess atmospheric carbon dioxide increase green house effect as carbon dioxide

  1. excess CO2
  2. precipitates dust in the atmosphere
  3. is opaque to infrared rays
  4. reduce atmospheric pressure
  5. is not opaque to infrared rays
Answers available at the bottom

4. Which of the following processes acts to remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?

  1. burning fossil fuels 
  2. photosynthesis 
  3. deforestation 
  4. lightning 

5. Which of the following is not a major greenhouse gas?

  1. water vapor
  2. carbon-dioxide
  3. ozone
  4. methane

Answers available at the bottom
6. Checking of re radiating heat by atmosphere carbon dioxide, methane, ozone, dust is known as

  1. ozone layer
  2. green house effect
  3. radioactive effect
  4. solar effect
Answers available at the bottom
7. Which of the following is not a potential adverse effect of global warming?

  1. more extreme weather patterns 
  2. retreat of glaciers
  3. an increase of UVB radiation
  4. sea level rise

Answers available at the bottom
8. The most abundant greenhouse gas in the earth's atmosphere:

  1. methane 
  2. carbon dioxide 
  3. nitrous oxide 
  4. water vapor 

Answers available at the bottom
9. Which of the following gases are mainly responsible for the atmospheric greenhouse effect in the earth's atmosphere?

  1. nitrogen and carbon dioxide 
  2. water vapor and carbon dioxide 
  3. ozone and oxygen 
  4. oxygen and nitrogen 

10. Ultraviolet radiations from sunlight causes a reaction that produces

  1. sulphur oxide
  2. fluorides
  3. ozone
  4. carbon monoxide
Answers for the above Questions( 1 to 10 Questions)
1. absorbing earthshine in the 10 micron region
2. CFCs
3. is opaque to infrared rays
4. photosynthesis 
5. ozone
6. green house effect
7. an increase of UVB radiation
8. water vapor 
9. water vapor and carbon dioxide 
10. Ozone


GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS

1. Which is the only land-locked country in
South-East Asia ?
(1) Cambodia
(2) Malaysia
(3) Laos
(4) Thailand
2. Consider the following statements : Assertion (A) : Assam grows maximum tea in India.
Reason (R) : A lot of cheap tribal labour is available.
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true

3. Match the following Tribes (List I) with Locations (List II) :
 List I  (Tribe)
 List II  (Location)
A. Masai I. Arabia
B. Bedouin II. Northern Nigeria
C. Hausa III. Eastern Africa/ Kenya
D. Bushmen IV. Kalahari Desert
Select the code for the correct answer rom the options given below :
A B C D
(1) III I II IV
(2) I III II IV
(3) III II I IV
(4) II I III IV

4. Based on the size of the population, consider the following urban settlements :
A. City
B. Town
C. Megalopolis
D. Megacity
E. Million city

Using the code, arrange the urban settlements in decreasing order.
(1) E, D, C, A, B
(2) C, D, E, A, B
(3) D, C, E, A, B
(4) D, E, C, A, B


5. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding ‘Sendai Framework’ ?
A. The fourth UN World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction was held in
Sendai, Japan from 14 – 18 March 2015.
B. The Conference adopted the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015 – 2030.
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A only
(2) Both A and B
(3) B only
(4) Neither A nor B

6. While standing on Earth, suppose your weight has a value of 100 Newtons. If the Earth shrinks to half its diameter without any change in mass, then your new weight on the surface of the shrunken
Earth, in Newtons, is
(1) 100
(2) 400
(3) 200
(4) 300
7. Select the false statement. The Mediterranean type of climate is characterised by
(1) A dry warm summer with offshore trades and there is practically no rain in summer.
(2) The Mediterranean lands receive most of their precipitation in winter, when the westerlies shift
equator-wards.
(3) The Mediterranean climate features are transitional between those of the trade winds hot desert in the south and cool temperature maritime climate in the north.
(4) Rain in the Mediterranean Europe normally begins in January.

8. Consider the following statments about Kailash Satyarthi, Nobel Peace Prize winner, 2016 for India :
A. Kailash Satyarthi is the third Indian Nobel Peace Prize winner after Mother Teresa and Amartya
Sen.
B. Kailash Satyarthi is the founder of the Bachpan Bachao Andolan (save the childhood movement).
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) Both A and B
(4) Neither A nor B

9. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(1) K 2 (Mount Godwin-Austen) is the highest peak in India.
(2) Indira Gandhi Canal is the longest canal in India.
(3) Hirakud is the longest dam in India.
(4) Geographically Uttar Pradesh is the biggest State in India.

10. Which one of the following International Airports is not correctly matched ?
(1) Hyderabad – Anna
(2) Kolkata – Subhas Chandra Bose
(3) Delhi – Indira Gandhi
(4) Mumbai – Chhatrapati Shivaji

11. Which of the following organizations issues the ‘‘Global Economic Prospects’’ Report ?
(1) World Bank
(2) BRICS Bank
(3) The Asian Development Bank
(4) The US Federal Reserve Bank


12. The Cauvery river or Kaveri, is one of the important and sacred rivers of South India and travels through Karnataka and Tamil Nadu across the Deccan Plateau.
Which of the following statements is true about it ?
(1) It originates at Talakaveri in the Eastern Ghats Mountain Range.
(2) Jog Falls located on the Shimoga and Uttara Kannada district border is formed by it.
(3) Hemavati river is one of its tributaries.
(4) Kabini river is not one of its tributaries.

13. Who said the following ?
‘‘I can ruin their resources by land but I cannot dry up the sea.’’
(1) Tipu Sultan
(2) Zaman Shah
(3) Haider Ali
(4) Nizam

14. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(1) Kumardhara – Arkavati
(2) Yagachi – Hemavati
(3) Karanja – Manjara
(4) Hiran – Narmada

15. Which one of the following industrial cities is not correctly matched ?
(1) Heavy electricals – Haridwar
(2) Antibiotic (Penicillin) – Vadodara industry
(3) Woollen goods – Dhariwal
(4) Machine tools – Pinjore

16. In the production of sugar, arrange the following States in descending order :
A. Bihar
B. Maharashtra
C. Karnataka
D. Gujarat
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A, B, C, D
(2) A, B, D, C
(3) B, C, D, A
(4) B, A, D, C

17. Who among the following introduced Local Self-Government in India ?
(1) Lord Rippon
(2) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(3) Lord Mountbatten
(4) Lord Canning

18. Arrange the following later Mughal emperors in chronological order :
A. Alamgir II
B. Muhammad Shah
C. Shah Alam II
D. Ahmad Shah
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) C, B, D, A
(2) A, C, B, D
(3) A, B, C, D
(4) B, D, A, C
19. Which of the following statements about Akbar are correct ?
A. Akbar was proclaimed king in 1565 when he was only 13 years of age.
B. Akbar was looked after by Bairam Khan.
C. He fought his first battle with Hemu at Panipat.
D. He had marriage relationships with many Rajput Royal families.
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A, B and C only
(2) B, C and D only
(3) A, C and D only
(4) A, B, C and D

20. Match the Anglo Maratha War (List I)
with the Event (List II) :
List I (Anglo Maratha War)
List II (Events)
A. First Anglo Maratha War
I. Treaty of Bassein B. Second Anglo Maratha War
II. Treaty of Salbai C. Third Anglo Maratha War
III. Peshwa Bajirao II, Yaswant Rao Holkar and Appa Sahib Bhonsale defeated
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
A B C
(1) II III I
(2) II I III
(3) III I II
(4) III II I