1. The Delhi Special Police Establishment Act 1946:
(a) extends to the whole of India.
(b) is applicable only to Delhi.
(c) extends to Delhi and other Union Territories.
(d) extends to whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
2. The Director, Delhi Special Police Establishment shall hold office for a period of NOT less than:
(a) 4 years.
(b) 2 years.
(c) 3 years.
(d) 5 years.
3. On ceasing to hold office, the Central Vigilance Commissioner shall be:
(a) eligible for further employment to any office under the Government of India.
(b) eligible for appointment as an Administrator of a Union Territory.
(c) eligible for any diplomatic assignment only.
(d) ineligible for further appointment to any office of profit under the Government.
4. The President shall cause the report of the Central Vigilance Commission to be laid before:
(a) the Lok Sabha.
(b) the Rajya Sabha.
(c) each House of Parliament.
(d) a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament.
5. The Central Vigilance Commission is duty bound to present to the President a report as to the
work done:
(a) annually.
(b) every three months.
(c) every six months.
(d) at least three times in a year.
6. For the purpose of Section 13 of the Information Technology Act 2000, if the originator or the
addressee has more than one place of business, which one of the following shall be the place of
business?
(a) Place of residence
(b) Latest place of business
(c) Principal place of business
(d) Any of the places of business
7. Under the provisions of the Information Technology Act 2000, a digital signature certificate
issued by a certifying authority can:
(a) never be revoked.
(b) be revoked if the subscriber makes a request.
(c) be revoked depending upon the kind of certificate issued.
(d) be revoked if there is a disagreement between the partners of a firm.
8. The Information Technology Act 2000 provides that:
(a) all offences under the Act are compoundable.
(b) offences other than those punishable by imprisonment for life or for a term exceeding
three years are compoundable with certain exceptions.
(c) offences other than those committed against a company or corporation are
compoundable.
(d) none of the offences under this Act are compoundable.
9. Under the provisions of the Information Technology Act 2000, ‘cyber café’ means:
(a) a place having internet connection.
(b) an establishment having internet access.
(c) any facility from where access to the internet is offered by any person in the ordinary
course of business to the members of the public.
(d) an establishment having 24 hours internet access.
10. According to the provisions of the Prevention of Corruption Act 1988, which one of the
following is NOT correct?
(a) A Sub-Inspector of Delhi Special Police Establishment is authorized to investigate a
matter generally without order of the Metropolitan Magistrate / Magistrate of the first
class
(b) In Ahmedabad, an Assistant Commissioner of Police is authorized to investigate a matter
generally without order of the Metropolitan Magistrate / Magistrate of the first class
(c) In Kanpur, a Deputy Superintendent of Police is authorized to investigate a matter
generally without order of the Metropolitan Magistrate / Magistrate of the first class
(d) In Mumbai, an Assistant Commissioner of Police is authorized to investigate a matter
generally without order of the Metropolitan Magistrate / Magistrate of the first class
(a) extends to the whole of India.
(b) is applicable only to Delhi.
(c) extends to Delhi and other Union Territories.
(d) extends to whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
2. The Director, Delhi Special Police Establishment shall hold office for a period of NOT less than:
(a) 4 years.
(b) 2 years.
(c) 3 years.
(d) 5 years.
3. On ceasing to hold office, the Central Vigilance Commissioner shall be:
(a) eligible for further employment to any office under the Government of India.
(b) eligible for appointment as an Administrator of a Union Territory.
(c) eligible for any diplomatic assignment only.
(d) ineligible for further appointment to any office of profit under the Government.
4. The President shall cause the report of the Central Vigilance Commission to be laid before:
(a) the Lok Sabha.
(b) the Rajya Sabha.
(c) each House of Parliament.
(d) a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament.
5. The Central Vigilance Commission is duty bound to present to the President a report as to the
work done:
(a) annually.
(b) every three months.
(c) every six months.
(d) at least three times in a year.
6. For the purpose of Section 13 of the Information Technology Act 2000, if the originator or the
addressee has more than one place of business, which one of the following shall be the place of
business?
(a) Place of residence
(b) Latest place of business
(c) Principal place of business
(d) Any of the places of business
7. Under the provisions of the Information Technology Act 2000, a digital signature certificate
issued by a certifying authority can:
(a) never be revoked.
(b) be revoked if the subscriber makes a request.
(c) be revoked depending upon the kind of certificate issued.
(d) be revoked if there is a disagreement between the partners of a firm.
8. The Information Technology Act 2000 provides that:
(a) all offences under the Act are compoundable.
(b) offences other than those punishable by imprisonment for life or for a term exceeding
three years are compoundable with certain exceptions.
(c) offences other than those committed against a company or corporation are
compoundable.
(d) none of the offences under this Act are compoundable.
9. Under the provisions of the Information Technology Act 2000, ‘cyber café’ means:
(a) a place having internet connection.
(b) an establishment having internet access.
(c) any facility from where access to the internet is offered by any person in the ordinary
course of business to the members of the public.
(d) an establishment having 24 hours internet access.
10. According to the provisions of the Prevention of Corruption Act 1988, which one of the
following is NOT correct?
(a) A Sub-Inspector of Delhi Special Police Establishment is authorized to investigate a
matter generally without order of the Metropolitan Magistrate / Magistrate of the first
class
(b) In Ahmedabad, an Assistant Commissioner of Police is authorized to investigate a matter
generally without order of the Metropolitan Magistrate / Magistrate of the first class
(c) In Kanpur, a Deputy Superintendent of Police is authorized to investigate a matter
generally without order of the Metropolitan Magistrate / Magistrate of the first class
(d) In Mumbai, an Assistant Commissioner of Police is authorized to investigate a matter
generally without order of the Metropolitan Magistrate / Magistrate of the first class
11. ‘A’ and ‘B’ have been accused of an offence where the accused persons had no intention of
causing the death of any one and no injury was found on the deceased which was sufficient to
cause death in the ordinary course of nature. As per medical opinion, the injuries were not likely
to cause death. It could not be established as to which of the two accused inflicted injuries on the
head of the deceased. The accused should be liable to be convicted under:
(a) Section 326 of the Indian Penal Code read with Section 34 for voluntarily causing
grievous hurt.
(b) Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code for murder
(c) Section 308 of the Indian Penal Code for attempting to commit culpable homicide not
amounting to murder
(d) Section 307 of the Indian Penal Code read with Section 34 for attempting to commit
murder
12. Which one of the following is NOT an essential element of the defence of accident under the
Indian Penal Code?
(a) Absence of criminal intention or knowledge
(b) Act must be lawful
(c) Means must be lawful
(d) Act must be done with due attention
causing the death of any one and no injury was found on the deceased which was sufficient to
cause death in the ordinary course of nature. As per medical opinion, the injuries were not likely
to cause death. It could not be established as to which of the two accused inflicted injuries on the
head of the deceased. The accused should be liable to be convicted under:
(a) Section 326 of the Indian Penal Code read with Section 34 for voluntarily causing
grievous hurt.
(b) Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code for murder
(c) Section 308 of the Indian Penal Code for attempting to commit culpable homicide not
amounting to murder
(d) Section 307 of the Indian Penal Code read with Section 34 for attempting to commit
murder
12. Which one of the following is NOT an essential element of the defence of accident under the
Indian Penal Code?
(a) Absence of criminal intention or knowledge
(b) Act must be lawful
(c) Means must be lawful
(d) Act must be done with due attention
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